My husband wanted to sell a piece of land that was his own, but his father insisted that he transfer the land in his (the father’s) name so that he could sell it at a higher price. Then, my husband and his father would split the price. After my father-in-law sold the land, he denied everything and refused to acknowledge my husband’s right. My father-in-law passed away a year ago, and my husband’s brothers divided the inheritance, refusing to acknowledge that this land was a trust held by their father for my husband until it was sold. Are they sinful for knowingly denying that the land belongs to my husband, and what is the ruling on praying against them?
All perfect praise be to Alalh, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
Among the rights of the deceased upon their heirs are: preparing them for burial at death, settling their debts, returning people’s rights to them, executing their will, and then dividing their estate. What was mentioned in the question falls under the rights of others, even if they are among the heirs, and the deceased is not absolved of it unless it is returned to its rightful owners. This is because Allah, Almighty, forbids consuming others' wealth/properties unjustly. However, do not give up on seeking a solution by involving righteous and well - respected individuals who may have influence over them, in the hope that Allah guides them to goodness and correctness. As for supplicating against them, the prayer of the oppressed is not rejected, even if the oppressed person is not a Muslim. And Allah knows best.
I work for a company whose manager refuses to allow employees to leave during work hours. Do I incur sin if I secretly went out to join the congregation at the Masjid? Is doing so considered a breach of trust?
Praise be to the Lord of the Worlds.
We recommend that you pray at work to encourage your colleagues to follow suit, because whoever guides to good has the like of the reward of the person who actually does it. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it allowed for a Muslim woman to wear nail polish?
Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Nail polish is an adornment that a woman is allowed to wear for her husband, and not in the presence of non-Mahram men. However, during ablution water needs to reach the nails, so it isn`t possible to perform 'Wudu (ablution) with nail polish on. Therefore, it isn`t valid to make Ghusl Jnabah (Ghusl performed after sexual intercourse or ejaculation), Ghusl after menstruation and Ghusl after Nifas (blood of childbirth) while wearing nail polish. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
In the last verse of Surah At-Tin, Allah Says (What means): "Is Allah not the most just of judges?" [At-Tin/8]. Is it permissible for us, while performing congregational prayer, to respond after the Imam recites it by saying: "Indeed, and I am among those who bear witness to that." ?
It is recommended for the worshipper to say 'Indeed' (Bala) silently after reciting or hearing the verse (/What means): "Is Allah not the most just of judges?" [At-Tin/8]. This is part of reflecting on the Quran during its recitation or listening, as Allah Says (What means): "Then do they not reflect upon the Quran, or are there locks upon [their] hearts?" (Muhammad: 24). Doing so helps in achieving humility and focus in prayer. And Allah Knows Best
