I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Does offering Udhiyah (Offering a Sacrificial animal at Aid Al-Adha) avails from offering Aqiqa?
Offering an Udhiyah doesn't avail a person from offering Aqiqa because each of which is a different act of worship. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a woman who has become pure before the end of forty days of confinement to perform different acts of worship? and is it lawful for her husband to have sex with her?
Once postpartum bleeding ceases and she is certain that it won`t happen again, she becomes pure, and so she should perform Ghusl (ritual bath), pray, and fast. She can also have sex with her husband even before the end of (40) days because the minimum of postpartum bleeding is a moment, and the maximum is (60) days. However, the postpartum bleeding for the majority of women is (40) days, but this does not apply to rest of them.
I have vowed that if Allah gave me what I wanted so bad, I would fast every Monday and Thursday to the rest of my life; unless there is a valid excuse hindering me from doing so. Fortunately, Allah gave me what I wanted, so I started fasting Mondays and Thursdays; however, I stopped out of laziness. What is the Sharia ruling on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Allah The Almighty described the righteous people of Jannah where He Said (What means): "They perform (their) vows, and they fear a Day whose evil flies far and wide." [Al-Insan/7]. Accordingly, you must do your best to fulfill your vow. However, if you are unable to do so, then feed a poor person for every missed day of fast (About half a JD), and if you are unable to do that, then offer expiation for breaking a vow, which is feeding ten poor Muslims (About half a JD for each), ask Allah for forgiveness and increase remembrance of Him. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
