Does vomiting during the day in Ramadan break the fast?
Intentional vomiting is one of the nullifiers of fasting; whoever vomits deliberately breaks their fast.
However, if vomiting occurs involuntarily, the fast remains valid as long as nothing returns to the body cavity (jauf). If anything is swallowed back, the fast is invalidated.
The Prophet ﷺ said: "Whoever is overcome by vomiting does not have to make up the fast, but whoever induces vomiting deliberately must make it up." [Narrated by Abu Dawood and At-Tirmidhi]
What is the ruling on offering an Udhiyah on behalf of another with their permission?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is permissible for a person to offer a sacrifice (Udhiyah) on behalf of someone else with their permission, even if the person performing it has not offered a sacrifice for themselves. It is stated in Sharh Manhaj al-Tullab (Vol.5/P.261) by Zakariya al-Ansari: "No one may offer a sacrifice on behalf of another without their permission... as opposed to when permission has been granted." And Allah the Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling on reciting the takbīr from Sūrat aḍ-Ḍuḥā to Sūrat an-Nās upon completing the recitation of the Qur'an (khatm)?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is recommended to recite the takbīr from the beginning of Sūrat aḍ-Ḍuḥā through to the end of Sūrat an-Nās, and this is the recitation practice of the people of Makkah.
It is stated in Nihāyat az-Zayn (p. 65): "It is sunnah to begin each sūrah with the basmalah, since it constitutes a verse of it. It is also sunnah to say, before each sūrah — from aḍ-Ḍuḥā to the end of the Qur'an — 'Lā ilāha illallāh, wallāhu akbar' (There is no god but Allah, and Allah is the Greatest), based on what has been narrated regarding Imam ash-Shāfi‘ī (raḍiyallāhu ‘anh), who heard a man reciting this takbīr in prayer, and said to him: 'You have done well, and you have hit upon the sunnah.'"
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
What is the ruling on a woman using contraception without her husband's knowledge if he is mistreating her?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is not permissible for a woman to use any means of delaying pregnancy without her husband's knowledge, consent, and mutual agreement. This is because having children is a sharʿī right belonging to both spouses equally in Islamic law. Imām al-Māwardī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "The right to a child from a free woman is shared between them both" — meaning between the two spouses. [al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr, 9/320]
It is therefore not permissible for either spouse to make a unilateral decision regarding the prevention of pregnancy without the consent of the other. We advise both spouses to discuss the matter with wisdom and mutual respect, so as to resolve any disagreement and arrive at a suitable solution that serves the interests of them both. And Allah the Almighty knows best.
