The Series "Jinn" is a Decline in Morals

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What is the ruling on praying while wearing shoes?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

There is no sin for a Muslim to perform prayer while wearing their sandals or shoes, provided they are free from any impurities (najasa). It was narrated that Anas bin Malik (may Allah be pleased with him) was asked: 'Did the Prophet ﷺ pray in his sandals?' He replied: 'Yes.'" (Related by Al-Bukhari).

It is stated in Fath al-Bari (Vol.1/P.494) by Ibn Hajar (may Allah have mercy on him): "Regarding the phrase 'praying in his sandals,' Ibn Battal said: 'This is understood to apply as long as there is no impurity on them; furthermore, this is considered one of the legal concessions (rukhas)." And Allah the Almighty knows best.

When is supplication (du‘a) more likely to be accepted: before or after breaking the fast in Ramadan?

Du‘a is accepted at all times, and this is part of Allah’s mercy and generosity toward His servants.

The Prophet ﷺ said: "No Muslim makes a supplication that does not involve sin or severing family ties except that Allah grants them one of three things: either He grants their supplication immediately, or He stores it for them in the Hereafter, or He averts from them an equivalent harm." [Narrated by Ahmad]

However, in Ramadan, du‘a is especially likely to be accepted shortly before breaking the fast.

The Prophet ﷺ said: "Three supplications are never rejected: the supplication of a fasting person until they break their fast, the supplication of a just leader, and the supplication of an oppressed person. Allah raises it above the clouds, opens the gates of heaven for it, and says: ‘By My might, I will surely grant you victory, even if after a while.’" [Narrated by Al-Tirmidhi]

What is the ruling on the ablution of one who touches his wife without a barrier?

In the Shafi'i school, a man's ablution is invalidated by touching his wife if their skins meet (in any place) without a barrier, whether the touch is intentional or accidental. An exception to this is touching hair, teeth, or nails; these do not invalidate ablution. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on sacrificing a hornless sheep?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.

It is valid to sacrifice a hornless sheep (al-Jamma’ or al-Jalha’). Similarly, a sheep with a broken horn is also acceptable; it does not affect the validity of the sacrifice even if the break causes bleeding, unless the injury is so severe that it leads to the spoilage of the meat. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

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The Series "Jinn" is a Decline in Morals

Author : The General Iftaa` Department

Date Added : 15-06-2023

The Series "Jinn" is a Decline in Morals

The Grand Mufti of Jordan Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh confirmed that the series entitled "Jinn" constitutes a decline on the level of values and morals, does not represent the customs of Jordanians, and contradicts the teachings of Islam.

Responding to a question about showing this series on Netflix, Al-Khalayleh said: "The broadcast of immoral scenes is strange to Jordanians and the deeply held values of our society and contradicts the teachings of Islam."

Al-Khalayleh stressed the need to "Come up with solutions to prevent the recurrence of such scenes in the future." And Allah the Almighty knows best.

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Summarized Fatawaa

If a woman becomes pure from menstruation before the Fajr Adhan in Ramadan, is she required to fast?

If a woman becomes pure (from menstrual period) before the Fajr Adhan, she must fast, as the impediment preventing her from fasting has been removed. The Sharia maxim in this regard states: "When the impediment is removed, the obligation returns."

She should then make the intention to fast before Fajr and perform ghusl (ritual purification) for prayer, whether before or after Fajr.

Which is better for a traveler: fasting or breaking the fast?

Fasting is better, unless it causes hardship—in that case, breaking the fast is better.

How is the niṣāb (minimum threshold) of gold calculated when one owns gold of multiple different karats?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.

Zakāh is obligatory on cash and on gold designated for saving or for trade, provided the total reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah), and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The niṣāb is (85) grams of 24-karat gold; for 21-karat gold, the niṣāb equals (97) grams; and for 18-karat gold, it equals (113) grams.

If one owns gold of multiple different karats, the person paying zakāh should calculate the monetary value of all the gold he owns, combining these values together to determine whether the total reaches the niṣāb. He then pays zakāh on this combined monetary value, once the total reaches the niṣāb. The relied-upon position is to calculate the zakāh based on the buying price [i.e., the price the gold merchant would pay the owner to purchase the gold from him] on the day the zakāh obligation is due. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on purchasing a home through conventional commercial banks for those living in the West?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.

The ruling of Islamic Law on purchasing a home through usurious/interest-bearing loans was previously detailed in Fatwa No. (760). Its summary affirms the prohibition of purchasing homes through interest-bearing loans, based on the general foundational principle of the strict prohibition of Riba (usury). This is the position we hold in devotion to Allah Almighty, and it is the religious edict we convey to the people.

As for considering the specific circumstances of a particular country or individual, the questioner must personally consult scholars whom they trust within their country of residence. And Allah Almighty knows best.