عربي
Home


Articles

Articles

Statement on Zakat-ul-Fitr/1430 AH
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 06-04-2023

Statement on Zakat-ul-Fitr/1430 AH

 

 

In the Name of Allah, the Most Gracious, The Most Merciful

 

 

Praise be to the Lord of all worlds. Prayers and peace be upon our Prophet, Muhammad, his family and all of his companions.

 

Zakat-ul-Fitr is a religious obligation. Ibn `Umar (May Allah Be Pleased with them) narrated: "Allah's Messenger (PBUH) Made it incumbent on all the slave or free Muslims, male or female, to pay one Sa' of dates or barley as Zakat-ul-Fitr." {Related by Bukhari & Muslim}.

 

Therefore, the amount of Zakat-ul-Fitr is one Sa` of food. {Sa` is approximately equal to (2.5 Kgs.)}. In the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, the common food is wheat. Therefore, Zakat-ul-Fitr is (2.5 Kgs.) of wheat on every person. It is also permissible to give one Sa` of rice since it is common food as well. Moreover, it is also permissible to give the value of this amount in cash. However, giving wheat or rice is better so as not to contradict the view of the jurists in favor of this.

 

We have asked about the price of one kilo of wheat and found that the average is (60 piasters), so (150 piasters) is due on each person as Zakat-ul-Fitr and whoever gives more Allah will reward them greater than that.

 

Zakatu-ul-Fitr is due on the capable Muslim along with his dependents (Wife, children and poor parents) as well as the child born before the sunset of the last day of Ramadan.

 

The preferred time for giving Zakat-ul-Fitr is between the sunset of the last day of Ramadan and the E`ed prayer. However, it is  permissible to give it from the beginning of Ramadan.

 

Nowadays, it is the duty of every Muslim to observe this ritual (Zakat-ul-Fitr) for it purifies the soul from any indecent acts. Therefore, it must be given on behalf of the child, who isn`t obliged to fast as well as the sick who is unable to fast. Ibn ’Abbas (May Allah be pleased with them) narrated: "The Messenger of Allah (PBUH) Enjoined Zakat-ul-fitr on the one who fasts (i.e. fasted during the month of Ramadan) to purify him from any indecent act or speech and to provide food for the needy." {Abu Dawoud}. Giving it to the poor makes them self-sufficient on the day of E`ed. Therefore, a Muslim should give it willingly and kindly.

 

We pray that Allah The Almighty Accepts our acts of devotion and Erases our sins. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

 

All blessings be on Prophet Mohammad, his household and companions.

Article Number [ Previous | Next ]

Read for Author




Comments


Captcha


Warning: this window is not dedicated to receive religious questions, but to comment on topics published for the benefit of the site administrators—and not for publication. We are pleased to receive religious questions in the section "Send Your Question". So we apologize to readers for not answering any questions through this window of "Comments" for the sake of work organization. Thank you.




Summarized Fatawaa

Is a person who is in a state of Janabah (major ritual impurity due to having a marital intercourse, ejaculation, menstruation, and post-delivery impurities) sinful if he/she goes about his/her daily life activities in that state i.e. without making Ghusl (ritual bath)?

It goes without saying that a Muslim should always be in a state of ritual purity so as to be able to perform prayers and recite Quran. It is from Sunnah (Prophetic tradition) that a Muslim hastens to make Ghusl from Janabah, but he/she is not sinful in case he/she delayed that provided that he/she doesn`t miss prayers. However, it is permissible for him/her to go about their daily activities while in a state of Janabah, but had better bathe in order not to miss any prayer.

I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
 
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
 

Is it permissible for a woman in her menstrual period to recite from the Mus-haf (copy of the Quran ), or to recite by heart?

A menstruating woman is permitted neither to recite nor to touch the Quran according to what Ali Bin Abi Talib (May Allah be pleased with him) reported about the Prophet (PBUH) who was only held from reciting the Holy Quran by Janabah (Major impurity) [Al-Tirmizi in a sound Hadith]. Although Janabah and menstruation are major impurities, a menstruating woman is permitted to supplicate Allah (Duaa`) and make Zikr (Tasbihat ), even if these involved saying words from the Holy Quran, provided that she does not mean the words for themselves but as a supplication, or Zikr. Moreover, she is rewarded for not reciting the Quran during her menstrual period because she abided by the injunctions of Allah.

What is the ruling on someone who perform their prayer after finishing it because they believe they missed a Rak'a, a prostration, or that they did not perform it correctly (thinking their prayer was invalid)?

If he was sure that his prayer is void then reperforming it is an obligation along with figuring out the reason of invalidity so long as this wasn't out of uncertainty. And Allah Knows Best. 
 

See More