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The Iftaa` Department Refrains from Interfering in the Judiciary
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 23-03-2023

The Iftaa` Department Refrains from Interfering in the Judiciary

 

 

Some media reported that the General Iftaa` Department refrained from issuing a Fatwa on the inadmissibility of the testimony of the woman who doesn`t wear Hijab.

 

In response to this claim, the Department wishes to make clear that the requested Fatwa is related to a case pending before the court. Therefore, it refrained from issuing that Fatwa to ensure the impartiality and independence of the judiciary system, the integrity of its provisions and non-interference in its affairs, as provided for in the legislations in force. This is to achieve justice and preserve the rights of the litigants.

 

The Department asserts that non-interference in cases pending before the court is its adopted approach since its establishment to safeguard the integrity of litigation from any external influences.

 

Only Allah leads to prosperity and guides to the straight path•

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Summarized Fatawaa

I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
 
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
 

Is it permissible for someone who has forgotten to mention the supplication pertaining to answering the call of nature to say it while in the toilet?

It is disliked for a Muslim to mention Allah while in the toilet, but he/she may recall the supplication in his/her head without uttering it; that is in case he/she had forgotten mentioning it before entering the toilet.

Is it permissible for a man to lie to his wife? Is it permissible for a man to abandon his wife to work in Saudi Arabia, without her approval, although he is wealthy?

All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The Messenger of Allah commanded men to treat women kindly, so marital problems should be solved through understanding, and whatever causes harm to a woman is forbidden. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

What is the ruling o associations (Whereas a person who have money buys a commodity for a person and  and gets a profit on it)?

It is permissible for a person to buy a commodity for someone's else and have a profit/loss on it

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