An Arab young man had an illegitimate sexual relationship with a Christian American while she was staying in one of the Arab countries. After she returned to America, she told him that she had doubts that she was impregnated by him. It is worth pointing that it is hard for him to get a visa to the USA. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Zina (Adultery and extramarital relations) is one of the grave sins that incur the wrath of Allah if the adulterer didn`t make immediate repentance. However, the child isn`t attributed to the adulterer. Rather, he/she is attributed to the woman who got pregnant by him and, according to Sharia, it isn`t considered a legitimate child of the adulterer. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
What should a woman, who has given several births during different months of Ramadhaan, and didn`t make up for them in addition to forgetting the exact number of the days and years in which she had missed fasting, do?
She should make up the missed days of Ramadan after estimating their number, and paying the ransom (in food) due on each missed day that she had delayed making up. In addition, she is obliged to repay the ransom according to the number of years if she was able to fast before that time, but didn`t.
I became ill while fasting and had to take an intramuscular injection twice on two consecutive days during Ramadan. I continued my fast as usual, as I was told that intramuscular injections do not break the fast. Please advise me so that I can know the correct ruling.
Subcutaneous and intramuscular therapeutic injections are not considered as invalidators of fasting because they do not enter the stomach through an open passage. However, intravenous injections containing nutritional fluids do invalidate the fast, as they are akin to food and drink in purpose. Therefore, your fast is valid. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a wife to give her money to her family as a charity, or a gift without asking her husband, or seeking his consent?
The wife has the right to give her money as a charity, or a gift to her family, or to other people after consulting her husband out of respect, and this is the meaning of treating on footing of kindness and equity. Therefore, if he wanted to stop her from helping her family, then there is no harm in not telling him.
