Is it permissible for a woman to use a contraceptive without telling her husband although he wants to have as many children as possible and she can`t care for them?
All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds, may His Blessings and Peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
If the pregnancy is harmful to the woman, it is permissible for her to use a contraceptive; however, this has to be backed by a medical report from a God-fearing doctor. In addition, you had better inform your of what you are doing to avoid dispute. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
It was found out that a man divorced his wife for the third time in 2005, but they continued cohabiting as man and wife. However, when they realized that what they were doing was unlawful, they came the Iftaa` Department in 2009 and were told that they can`t be together. What is the position of Sharia on this couple?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Her Iddah* period starts after the third divorce. As for the continued cohabitation, it is unlawful because being ignorant about the rulings of Sharia while in Dar Al-Islam* is no valid excuse. If a baby came as the fruit of this unlawful consummation of marriage, then a judge of Sharia has the final say in this regard because lineage is a serious matter. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* ʿIddah: a specified period of time that must elapse before a Muslim widow or divorcee may legitimately remarry. The Qurʾān (Sura,2/verse,228) prescribes that a menstruating woman have three monthly periods before contracting a new marriage; the required delay for a nonmenstruating woman is three lunar months.
* Dar Al-Islam: designates a territory where Muslims are free to practice their religion, though this often implies the implementation of Islamic law, whereas Dar al-Harb represents those lands ruled by non-believers
What is the ruling on making up for missed fasting after the second half of Sha`ban (the month before Ramadhaan)?
One is obliged to make up for missed fasting before the start of next Ramadhaan, and regardless of offering it during the first, or the second half of Shab`an. This is because the prohibition mentioned in the Hadith is for offering absolute voluntary fasting in the second half of Sha`ban. And Allah Knows Best.
What is the stance of Ahlus-Sunnah wal-Jama'ah regarding the historical figure known as 'the Sufyani,' who some say will appear at the end of times? And what is the stance of Ahlus-Sunnah wal-Jama'ah regarding the group that killed Al-Husayn ibn Ali (may Allah be pleased with them), particularly those who directly committed the killing, severed his head, and killed members of his family?
Most of the narrations about the signs of the Hour concerning the Sufyani, who is said to appear before the Mahdi, indicate that he is the leader of the army that will invade the Kaaba, and Allah will cause the earth to swallow them. We disassociate ourselves before Allah from those who killed Al-Husayn Ibn Ali (may Allah be pleased with them), supported his killing, or encouraged it, whether openly or secretly. The inner matters are left to Allah alone. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
