Is it permissible for a woman to inherit the same share as of a man?

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all if his family and companions.                                                                                                                                                                                                 Thorough studies in which woman's right to inherit according to law of distribution of estate indicates that there are more than one case by which women inherit the same as man and sometimes much more, or to shed the lights regarding the right to inherit while men who share the same family line with her don't have the right to inherit because the deceased has closer ties of kinship with her. In addition to four cases whereas woman inherits half share in comparison with man's share although they had the same degree of kinship with the deceased. For further details as regards the latter cases, kindly refer to elaborated jurisprudence books. And Allah Knows Best.

Is it permissible for a woman in her waiting period (Iddah) after her husband's death to leave her house and mix with non-Mahrams?

It is not permissible for a woman in her waiting period (Iddah) after the death of her husband to leave her house except for a necessity, such as for medical treatment, nor is she allowed to mix with non-Mahrams. A woman is not permitted to mix with anyone other than her husband or Mahrams, whether she is in her waiting period or not. However, there is no harm in accepting condolences from those who visit and responding to their inquiries about her well-being. And Allah Knows Best.

Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?

When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).

Is everyone obligated to follow the fatwas of his country, and if we adopt the fatwas of scholars of other countries, is it considered a sin?

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Wolrds and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.

It is permissible for the person who isn't specialized in Sharia sciences to apply the opinions of renowned scholars whom he trusts ,whether they be from his own country or not ,but if the scholars have different opnions regarding a certain issue/matter, then he must consult someone who is more knowledgeable than himself .It is preferable that you (the questioner) specify the case of your interest ,so that we could give you a more specific answer since some scholars deliver fatwas based on illogical/atypical opinions which should not be applied no matter what .And Allah The Exalted Knows Best.