Is a woman`s prayer considered invalid if non-Mahrams (marriageable men) saw her offering it?
A woman`s prayer isn`t invalidated if non-Mahrams saw her offering it, but she had better pray in isolation.
Is the marriage contract considered valid if concluded at home by the marriage official (Ma`zon)?
Yes, it is valid as long as it is registered at the court.
I am a wholesale gold trader. My clients are retail gold shop owners. I sell them gold jewelry and ornaments on credit, and they repay me in weekly installments over a period of two months or more. The payments are made in cash for the labor charges and for the gold they owe me. In return, they may give me either cash or used gold.
It is not permissible to sell gold or silver on an installment basis or with a deferred payment; rather, immediate exchange is required. The Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said: "Gold for gold, silver for silver, wheat for wheat, barley for barley, dates for dates, and salt for salt, like for like, hand to hand. Whoever gives more or asks for more has engaged in usury; the giver and receiver are the same in this regard." (Muslim). Additionally, the weight of the gold must be equal when exchanging new for used; otherwise, it involves usury. The solution is to buy the used gold with cash, then sell the new gold for cash as well. However, payment must be made at the time of the transaction in both cases. Alternatively, one could take the used gold with the intention of refining it, reshape it into a new form, or repair it, then take a fee for the workmanship or repair. And Allah Knows Best
I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
