We collect funds from mosques and other sources, saying: "For the poor, the needy, widows, orphans, and those who do not beg insistently." After paying the stipends of the families registered with the Zakat Committee, an amount exceeding 6,000 dinars remained. Is it permissible for me to save it for upcoming months when I may not be able to collect the stipends?
These funds are received by the committee as representatives of the zakat payers to deliver zakat to those entitled to it. It is well-known that delaying zakat while being able to pay it is not permissible. Imam Al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said: "Zakat must be paid immediately if one is able to do so, by the presence of wealth and the eligible categories." [Al-Minhaj] Therefore, the committee must distribute the zakat to the eligible recipients without installment payments or using it to purchase material goods for them, as the committee does not have authority over the poor to allocate it in this way. And Allah Knows Best.
have an amount of 2,700 Jordanian dinars, which I have invested in a project, and I pay zakat on it every year. However, I have debts and obligations, and this project yields only a profit of about 2-4%. My salary is not enough to support myself and my family to the extent that I cannot pay the electricity bills. Is it permissible for me to take from the above Zakat?
You permitted to take from your Zakat since your income insufficient for you, because the poor is permitted to take from the Zakat in general, besides; the poor is identified of whose income doesn't suffice him. And Allah Knows Best.
There is a car dealership, and their method of selling is as follows: The customer pays the full price of the car, the car is registered in their name, and another contract is written in which the company commits to refunding the full price of the car to the customer after one year from the purchase date. What is the Islamic ruling on this transaction?
As for purchasing the car, paying its price, and owning it, this is a valid sale with no issue. However, the condition of refunding the price — whether the car is returned to the seller or not — is an invalid condition that nullifies the entire contract. Therefore, this transaction is invalid and not permissible. And Allah Knows Best.
I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
