Is a person who is in a state of Janabah (major ritual impurity due to having a marital intercourse, ejaculation, menstruation, and post-delivery impurities) sinful if he/she goes about his/her daily life activities in that state i.e. without making Ghusl (ritual bath)?
It goes without saying that a Muslim should always be in a state of ritual purity so as to be able to perform prayers and recite Quran. It is from Sunnah (Prophetic tradition) that a Muslim hastens to make Ghusl from Janabah, but he/she is not sinful in case he/she delayed that provided that he/she doesn`t miss prayers. However, it is permissible for him/her to go about their daily activities while in a state of Janabah, but had better bathe in order not to miss any prayer.
A person prays in a certain spot within the rows of the mosque, and gets angry if someone else prayed at his spot. What is the ruling on this behavior?
All Perfect Praise be to Allah The Lord of The Worlds and may His Peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions Prophet Mohammad (PBUH) make it prohibited for a Muslim from having/taking a certain spot in the mosque when performing prayers if they arrived and find it occupied, furthermore; it is the religious duty on others (praying people) to offer a piece of advice to alert the ones who don't know, that whoever reaches a spot first at the mosque having a priority/privilege upon others in that spot. And Allah Knows Best.
A woman is asking for divorce although she is still breastfeeding. What is the Islamic ruling on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It unlawful for a woman to seek divorce without a valid Sharia excuse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Someone asked me to pay off his debt on his behalf as a loan, without any compensation. When I went to the creditor, he told me that if I paid the full amount at once, rather than in installments, he would give me a certain discount. Is this permissible? And if he applies the discount, to whom does the deducted amount belong?
If part of the debt is paid and the creditor forgives the remaining amount, the waiver is valid, and the remaining debt is no longer the responsibility of the original debtor. The person who paid the debt on behalf of another has no right to claim any portion of the original debt. And Allah Knows Best.
