Does Husband fasting while being impure for having sexual intercourse with his wife at night permissible?
Yes it is permissible for you to fast because impurity isn't among valid fasting conditions, but you are obliged to perform ritual impurity in order to catch up Fajr prayer at its due time. And Allah Knows Best.
If the fasting of nine years has accumulated upon me, I wish to make them up by dividing them over several years, as it is difficult to fast them all in one year due to their large number. Consequently, expiation will be due on me. Is it permissible to pay the expiation after completing all the make-up fasts, even if it takes years?
If the fasting was broken due to a valid legal excuse, it is permissible to divide the make-up fasts over several years based on one’s ability. However, if a person passes away before completing the make-up fasts, the heirs must fast on their behalf or feed one needy person for each missed day.
If the fasting was broken without a valid excuse, one must hasten to make it up. Should the person die before completing the make-up fasts, the heirs must either fast or feed the needy on their behalf. As for the expiation, it is calculated after completing all the make-up fasts. And Allah Knows Best.
What is the ruling of Sharia on marrying a Jewish woman, dealing with the Jews, and going to Israel?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It is allowed for a Muslim to marry a Jewish or a Christian woman provided that this doesn`t affect his religion. As for dealing with the Jews who are outside Palestine, it is the same as dealing with the Christians; it is permissible as long as it doesn`t harm Islam. As for dealing with the Jews who are inside Palestine, the ruling differs depending on the persons themselves and the situations. By the end of the day, a believer`s heart leads him/her to what is good. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
If someone bought a car from an interest-based bank and then sold it to another person, does the second person bear any sin if they use the car's price to pay the installments owed to the bank?
When the buyer purchased the car, it became their property, and the price became their responsibility. The bank acts as the seller's agent for receiving the payment. Therefore, there is no sin on the second buyer, God willing, as long as the bank does not impose an increase in the amount if a payment is delayed. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
