I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
An Arab young man had an illegitimate sexual relationship with a Christian American while she was staying in one of the Arab countries. After she returned to America, she told him that she had doubts that she was impregnated by him. It is worth pointing that it is hard for him to get a visa to the USA. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Zina (Adultery and extramarital relations) is one of the grave sins that incur the wrath of Allah if the adulterer didn`t make immediate repentance. However, the child isn`t attributed to the adulterer. Rather, he/she is attributed to the woman who got pregnant by him and, according to Sharia, it isn`t considered a legitimate child of the adulterer. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
What is the stance of Ahlus-Sunnah wal-Jama'ah regarding the historical figure known as 'the Sufyani,' who some say will appear at the end of times? And what is the stance of Ahlus-Sunnah wal-Jama'ah regarding the group that killed Al-Husayn ibn Ali (may Allah be pleased with them), particularly those who directly committed the killing, severed his head, and killed members of his family?
Most of the narrations about the signs of the Hour concerning the Sufyani, who is said to appear before the Mahdi, indicate that he is the leader of the army that will invade the Kaaba, and Allah will cause the earth to swallow them. We disassociate ourselves before Allah from those who killed Al-Husayn Ibn Ali (may Allah be pleased with them), supported his killing, or encouraged it, whether openly or secretly. The inner matters are left to Allah alone. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a person, who vowed to offer two Rak`ahs (units of prayer) everyday for Allah`s sake, to do so after the Fajr (dawn) prayer?
In principle, a vow should be fulfilled as it was originally intended, and if its time lapses then, it should be fulfilled at any time because of the vow. Therefore, it is permissible to offer them after the Fajr prayer, and there is no prohibition in doing so. However, it is preferable for him to offer these two Rak`ahs at some other time to avoid the disagreement amongst the scholars in this regard.
