Is it permissible for the woman who is observing Iddah after the death of her husband to exchange calls with her relatives and husband`s family call?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It is permissible for the woman who is observing Iddah* after death of husband to exchange calls with them; however, when she speaks to non-Mahrams , she shouldn`t be soft of speech and she should be straight to the point. This because Almighty Allah Says (What means): "O ye wives of the Prophet! Ye are not like any other women. If ye keep your duty (to Allah), then be not soft of speech, lest he in whose heart is a disease aspire (to you), but utter customary speech." [Al-Ahzaab/32]. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
[1] The iddah is a waiting period that a Muslim woman observes after the death of her husband or after a divorce. The Quran says: For those men who die amongst you and leave behind wives, they (the wives) must confine themselves (spend iddah) for four months and ten days.
Is it permissible for the guardian, or the father of the child to hit the latter in order to teach him/her good manners?
It is permissible for the guardian to hit his/her child for teaching them good manners once they become ten years old provided that it is done mildly, harmlessly and without intimidation. Actually, such punishment is to be employed gradually i.e. after: asking, warning, and scolding. As for the teacher, he isn`t allowed to hit the student unless the latter`s father approves of it, and it is done according to necessity without intimidation, or harm.
If the Prophet (PBUH) was an Arab citizen in 2009, born in an Arab country ruled by an Arab ruler, saw what was happening to Gaza, what would he (PBUH) have done?
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
Had the Prophet (PBUH) been amongst us, Muslims would have supported him, and then he would do whatever pleases the heart of every Muslim. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
There is a car dealership, and their method of selling is as follows: The customer pays the full price of the car, the car is registered in their name, and another contract is written in which the company commits to refunding the full price of the car to the customer after one year from the purchase date. What is the Islamic ruling on this transaction?
As for purchasing the car, paying its price, and owning it, this is a valid sale with no issue. However, the condition of refunding the price — whether the car is returned to the seller or not — is an invalid condition that nullifies the entire contract. Therefore, this transaction is invalid and not permissible. And Allah Knows Best.
