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Clarification from Iftaa` Department
Author : The General Iftaa' Department
Date Added : 08-09-2022

Clarification from Iftaa` Department

 

The General Iftaa` Department celebrates along with all Jordanians the Anniversary of the Royal Accession to the Throne and takes pride in all the gains achieved since the founding of the kingdom until now. It takes this opportunity to congratulate His Majesty King Abdullah II on the twentieth anniversary of his accession to the throne. In the meantime, it stresses that it is the duty of every citizen to preserve and take part in the advancement of our country at all levels.

 

Moreover, the Iftaa` Department confirms that it hasn`t recently issued a statement regarding patriotic songs and calls on media to avoid using the religion for unprofessional incitement during such significant national occasions.

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Summarized Fatawaa

My father passed away, and he had life insurance with "Alico" for an amount of 12,500 dinars. He had paid premiums totaling 2,000 dinars. The insurance company paid us the insured amount. Should we take it, or is it considered forbidden (haram) money? And what should we do with it if it is forbidden?

You may take the amount your father paid to the company. The remaining amount is not yours. However, if you must take it, then accept it and donate it to the poor. And Allah Knows Best.

Is it permissible for a woman in her waiting period (Iddah) after her husband's death to leave her house and mix with non-Mahrams?

It is not permissible for a woman in her waiting period (Iddah) after the death of her husband to leave her house except for a necessity, such as for medical treatment, nor is she allowed to mix with non-Mahrams. A woman is not permitted to mix with anyone other than her husband or Mahrams, whether she is in her waiting period or not. However, there is no harm in accepting condolences from those who visit and responding to their inquiries about her well-being. And Allah Knows Best.

Is it permissible for the guardian, or the father of the child to hit the latter in order to teach him/her good manners?

It is permissible for the guardian to hit his/her child for teaching them good manners once they become ten years old provided that it is done mildly, harmlessly and without intimidation. Actually, such punishment is to be employed gradually i.e. after: asking, warning, and scolding. As for the teacher, he isn`t allowed to hit the student unless the latter`s father approves of it, and it is done according to necessity without intimidation, or harm.

What is the ruling o associations (Whereas a person who have money buys a commodity for a person and  and gets a profit on it)?

It is permissible for a person to buy a commodity for someone's else and have a profit/loss on it

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