My husband wanted to sell a piece of land that was his own, but his father insisted that he transfer the land in his (the father’s) name so that he could sell it at a higher price. Then, my husband and his father would split the price. After my father-in-law sold the land, he denied everything and refused to acknowledge my husband’s right. My father-in-law passed away a year ago, and my husband’s brothers divided the inheritance, refusing to acknowledge that this land was a trust held by their father for my husband until it was sold. Are they sinful for knowingly denying that the land belongs to my husband, and what is the ruling on praying against them?
All perfect praise be to Alalh, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
Among the rights of the deceased upon their heirs are: preparing them for burial at death, settling their debts, returning people’s rights to them, executing their will, and then dividing their estate. What was mentioned in the question falls under the rights of others, even if they are among the heirs, and the deceased is not absolved of it unless it is returned to its rightful owners. This is because Allah, Almighty, forbids consuming others' wealth/properties unjustly. However, do not give up on seeking a solution by involving righteous and well - respected individuals who may have influence over them, in the hope that Allah guides them to goodness and correctness. As for supplicating against them, the prayer of the oppressed is not rejected, even if the oppressed person is not a Muslim. And Allah knows best.
Should Al-Basmalah (i.e. saying Bismillaaahi Ar-Rahmaani Ar-Raheemi) be recited after Takbeerat Al-Ihram (saying Allahuakbar) which marks the beginning of prayer?
All perfect praise be to Allah,The Lord of The Worlds A praying person is obliged to recite Al-Basmalah at the beginning of Chapter Al-Faatihah, and in every Rak`ah (unit of prayer) because it is a verse of it. And Allah Knows Best.
A woman used contraceptive pills, and her menses exceeded (15) days, is it permissible for her to fast?
The maximum of menstrual blood is (15) days, but if it exceeded that due to a medication, or the like, then it is Istihadah (bleeding outside the monthly period), and in this case she should perform Ghusl (ritual bath), pray, and fast. Moreover, she is obliged to make up for the missed fasting days which exceeded her regular menses. And Allah Knows Best.
What is the ruling on someone who vowed to fast for two consecutive months, but failed to do so?
He is obliged to fulfill his vow by fasting for two consecutive months, but if he fails to do so then, it remains a debt on him until he either fulfills his vow, or dies. In case of his death, his guardian is supposed to fast on his behalf, or donate food from his estate in return for fasting, but if the guardian fails to do so then, it is all in the Hands of Allah.
