Is it permissible for a Muslim woman to uncover her hair in the presence of a Christian woman?
All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah and that Muhammad, sallallahu ‘alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.
According to the reliable opinion of the Shafie School of Thought, this isn`t permissible. However, some scholars stated that it is permissible for a woman to uncover what she usually uncovers while doing housework, but this differs from one place to another where some women uncover their hair while some don`t. However, this is provided that a woman doesn`t uncover her hair in the presence of non-Mahram men (Men permissible for a woman to marry). And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
After our father had passed away, my brother and I stayed with our mother for twenty years and served her to the best of our effort. However, she asked our other brothers (3) to support her financially but they refused to pay her anything. As a result, she gave her share of the inheritance to me and my brother. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It is recommended to give one`s children, males and females, equally. However, your mother is allowed to give one of them more than the others because he/she is needy or more dutiful to her than the others. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a praying person to make supplication in each Sajdah (a prostration) of obligatory prayer?
It is permissible for a praying person, whether praying individually, or in congregation, to make supplication during Sujood (prostration) in obligatory, or voluntary prayers. However, it is disliked for the Imam to do so since he is required to spare the prayer performers any sort of hardship, unless he is leading a certain group who don`t mind him extending the prayer.
If someone bought a car from an interest-based bank and then sold it to another person, does the second person bear any sin if they use the car's price to pay the installments owed to the bank?
When the buyer purchased the car, it became their property, and the price became their responsibility. The bank acts as the seller's agent for receiving the payment. Therefore, there is no sin on the second buyer, God willing, as long as the bank does not impose an increase in the amount if a payment is delayed. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
