Is it permissible for a woman who has become pure before the end of forty days of confinement to perform different acts of worship? and is it lawful for her husband to have sex with her?
Once postpartum bleeding ceases and she is certain that it won`t happen again, she becomes pure, and so she should perform Ghusl (ritual bath), pray, and fast. She can also have sex with her husband even before the end of (40) days because the minimum of postpartum bleeding is a moment, and the maximum is (60) days. However, the postpartum bleeding for the majority of women is (40) days, but this does not apply to rest of them.
It was found out that a man divorced his wife for the third time in 2005, but they continued cohabiting as man and wife. However, when they realized that what they were doing was unlawful, they came the Iftaa` Department in 2009 and were told that they can`t be together. What is the position of Sharia on this couple?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Her Iddah* period starts after the third divorce. As for the continued cohabitation, it is unlawful because being ignorant about the rulings of Sharia while in Dar Al-Islam* is no valid excuse. If a baby came as the fruit of this unlawful consummation of marriage, then a judge of Sharia has the final say in this regard because lineage is a serious matter. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* ʿIddah: a specified period of time that must elapse before a Muslim widow or divorcee may legitimately remarry. The Qurʾān (Sura,2/verse,228) prescribes that a menstruating woman have three monthly periods before contracting a new marriage; the required delay for a nonmenstruating woman is three lunar months.
* Dar Al-Islam: designates a territory where Muslims are free to practice their religion, though this often implies the implementation of Islamic law, whereas Dar al-Harb represents those lands ruled by non-believers
Is a Muslim is Permitted to Pray Wearing Shoes?
All perfect praise be to Allah The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions There is no harm for a Muslim to pray wearing shoes or slippers so long as they are pure, since a man asked Anas Ibn Malik: "Did the Prophet (PBUH) use to offer the prayers with his shoes on?" He said: "Yes." Moreover, Ibn Rajab (May Allah have mercy on his soul) said: "Performing prayer wearing slippers/shoes is permissible according the majority of the Muslim scholars." [Fatih Al-Bary,vol.2/pp.274]. And Allah Knows Best.
What is the Islamic ruling on parents asking son to divorce his wife?
Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds.
If their asking him to do so is justified in Sharia, then there is no blame on him to obey them. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
