If the fasting of nine years has accumulated upon me, I wish to make them up by dividing them over several years, as it is difficult to fast them all in one year due to their large number. Consequently, expiation will be due on me. Is it permissible to pay the expiation after completing all the make-up fasts, even if it takes years?
If the fasting was broken due to a valid legal excuse, it is permissible to divide the make-up fasts over several years based on one’s ability. However, if a person passes away before completing the make-up fasts, the heirs must fast on their behalf or feed one needy person for each missed day.
If the fasting was broken without a valid excuse, one must hasten to make it up. Should the person die before completing the make-up fasts, the heirs must either fast or feed the needy on their behalf. As for the expiation, it is calculated after completing all the make-up fasts. And Allah Knows Best.
A woman didn't fufill fasting of the month of Ramadan two years ago, due to pregnancy and breastfeeding, at the time being she is making up the missed Ramadan. What is the ruling of Sharia? And what is due on her?
Whosoever break the fast during Ramadan or didn't fast at all due to health concerns, is obliged to make up the missed fasts whenever she could so long as making up missed Ramadan didn't extend to the coming one, and if next one arrived without fulling fasting the missed one, the ransom is 60 grams for each missed day (Equals 60 piasters to one Dinar for each day). And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
have an amount of 2,700 Jordanian dinars, which I have invested in a project, and I pay zakat on it every year. However, I have debts and obligations, and this project yields only a profit of about 2-4%. My salary is not enough to support myself and my family to the extent that I cannot pay the electricity bills. Is it permissible for me to take from the above Zakat?
You permitted to take from your Zakat since your income insufficient for you, because the poor is permitted to take from the Zakat in general, besides; the poor is identified of whose income doesn't suffice him. And Allah Knows Best.
I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
