My husband wanted to sell a piece of land that was his own, but his father insisted that he transfer the land in his (the father’s) name so that he could sell it at a higher price. Then, my husband and his father would split the price. After my father-in-law sold the land, he denied everything and refused to acknowledge my husband’s right. My father-in-law passed away a year ago, and my husband’s brothers divided the inheritance, refusing to acknowledge that this land was a trust held by their father for my husband until it was sold. Are they sinful for knowingly denying that the land belongs to my husband, and what is the ruling on praying against them?
All perfect praise be to Alalh, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
Among the rights of the deceased upon their heirs are: preparing them for burial at death, settling their debts, returning people’s rights to them, executing their will, and then dividing their estate. What was mentioned in the question falls under the rights of others, even if they are among the heirs, and the deceased is not absolved of it unless it is returned to its rightful owners. This is because Allah, Almighty, forbids consuming others' wealth/properties unjustly. However, do not give up on seeking a solution by involving righteous and well - respected individuals who may have influence over them, in the hope that Allah guides them to goodness and correctness. As for supplicating against them, the prayer of the oppressed is not rejected, even if the oppressed person is not a Muslim. And Allah knows best.
Is it permissible to move a grave from its current location to another place, for example, from a garden in a home to a cemetery, knowing that the grave has been there for a long time, about fifty years?
It is not permissible to move the deceased from his grave, as this may result in breaking his bones and violating his sanctity. Such actions are not allowed. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it true that whatever is dry is pure even if there was impurity on it?
The impure material object does not soil (make impure) anything else unless the impurity is wet and transferable. But, if the impurity is dry or non-transferable, then there is no problem. Fuqaha has stated that: There is no disagreement between Muslim scholars that when a dry impurity touches something dry it does not make the latter impure.
I am a doctor, and sometimes I refer patients to the hospital for surgical interventions, and they give me a commission from the fees of the surgeries, even though I do not perform these surgeries. What is the ruling?
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
If this commission is charged to the patient as part of the operation costs, then it is not permissible. Additionally, a doctor should only recommend surgery if there is a genuine medical need, and the hospital should only perform an operation when necessary. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
