Is everyone obligated to follow the fatwas of his country, and if we adopt the fatwas of scholars of other countries, is it considered a sin?
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Wolrds and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
It is permissible for the person who isn't specialized in Sharia sciences to apply the opinions of renowned scholars whom he trusts ,whether they be from his own country or not ,but if the scholars have different opnions regarding a certain issue/matter, then he must consult someone who is more knowledgeable than himself .It is preferable that you (the questioner) specify the case of your interest ,so that we could give you a more specific answer since some scholars deliver fatwas based on illogical/atypical opinions which should not be applied no matter what .And Allah The Exalted Knows Best.
My father placed shares worth twenty dinars in one of the banks, and their value doubled to become five thousand dinars. When my father passed away, one of the scholars told us that it is permissible for us to take the money. What is the ruling on this money, considering that it comes from a bank and involves interest (Riba)?
Allah The Almighty Said (What means): "And if you repent, then for you is the principal of your wealth. You do not wrong, nor are you wronged." [Al-Baqarah/279]. This is the precautionary ruling regarding what you are asking about. You are entitled to the principal amount, and you should give the excess as charity to the poor and needy. If you are poor, you may take from it. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
When Iddah is Initiated for Deceased's Wife?
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
Iddah is observed on the same date at which her husband passed away for four months, but as for the pregnant, it is observed at the date she gives birth. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it true that whatever is dry is pure even if there was impurity on it?
The impure material object does not soil (make impure) anything else unless the impurity is wet and transferable. But, if the impurity is dry or non-transferable, then there is no problem. Fuqaha has stated that: There is no disagreement between Muslim scholars that when a dry impurity touches something dry it does not make the latter impure.
