Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?
When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).
What is the ruling of Sharia on marrying a Jewish woman, dealing with the Jews, and going to Israel?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It is allowed for a Muslim to marry a Jewish or a Christian woman provided that this doesn`t affect his religion. As for dealing with the Jews who are outside Palestine, it is the same as dealing with the Christians; it is permissible as long as it doesn`t harm Islam. As for dealing with the Jews who are inside Palestine, the ruling differs depending on the persons themselves and the situations. By the end of the day, a believer`s heart leads him/her to what is good. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
A man has raped a woman and she gave birth to a baby boy. To whom should that baby be attributed?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
First of all, the adulterer must be punished according to the rules of Sharia and the baby isn`t attributed to him. Rather, it is attributed to the mother. This adulterer has committed a grave sin and incurred the wrath of Allah. We advise him to make sincere repentance to Allah and pray that Allah forgives him. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
What is the ruling on making up for missed fasting after the second half of Sha`ban (the month before Ramadhaan)?
One is obliged to make up for missed fasting before the start of next Ramadhaan, and regardless of offering it during the first, or the second half of Shab`an. This is because the prohibition mentioned in the Hadith is for offering absolute voluntary fasting in the second half of Sha`ban. And Allah Knows Best.