Is it permissible for the woman who is observing Iddah after her husband`s death to sit with her daughter`s suitor, although their marriage contract hasn`t been concluded yet?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
A suitor who hasn`t concluded the marriage contract isn`t a Mahram*, so he must be treated as such. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* The period a woman must observe after the death of her husband or after a divorce, during which she may not marry another man.
* In Islam, a mahram is a member of one's family with whom marriage would be considered haram, concealment purdah, or concealment of the body with hijab, is not obligatory; and with whom, if he is an adult male, she may be escorted during a journey, although an escort may not be obligatory.
A man break his fast once during Ramadan and he already have an expiation of fasting for two consecutive months. He fasted for a month and passed away. Is it permissible for his sons to fast the remaining month equally?
Fasting for expiation must be performed consecutively. I advise his children to feed sixty poor people, giving each one half a kilogram of rice or its monetary equivalent. This is because if a living person is unable to fast, they are required to feed sixty poor people, and death constitutes an inability. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
My mother is 70 years old and wishes to perform Hajj and Umrah, as she has never done so before. However, she also takes care of my ill father and is afraid of falling ill herself. What should she do?
If this is the obligatory Hajj – meaning she has not previously performed Hajj or Umrah – then it is permissible for her to go even without her husband's approval. However, she must travel with a Mahram (a male guardian) or a trustworthy group of women, and she should leave someone to care for her husband and attend to his needs. And Allah Knows Best.
Is buying shared land from someone who has taken possession of it considered halal or haram?
The shared land is possessed by the country i.e. for all people; therefore, it shouldn't be possessed/occupied save by it's guardian/owner permission,thusly it can't be possessed save by having owners' permission. Finally, buying it from a person who don't possess it is impermissible. And Allah Knows Best.
