Is it permissible for the father to give the Zakat of his money to his poor married son?
It is permissible for the father to give part of the Zakat to his poor son, if the latter was sound and healthy, because in this case the father isn't obliged to spend on his young son, even though; he is considered one of the Muslims poor. And Allah Knows Best.
We collect funds from mosques and other sources, saying: "For the poor, the needy, widows, orphans, and those who do not beg insistently." After paying the stipends of the families registered with the Zakat Committee, an amount exceeding 6,000 dinars remained. Is it permissible for me to save it for upcoming months when I may not be able to collect the stipends?
These funds are received by the committee as representatives of the zakat payers to deliver zakat to those entitled to it. It is well-known that delaying zakat while being able to pay it is not permissible. Imam Al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said: "Zakat must be paid immediately if one is able to do so, by the presence of wealth and the eligible categories." [Al-Minhaj] Therefore, the committee must distribute the zakat to the eligible recipients without installment payments or using it to purchase material goods for them, as the committee does not have authority over the poor to allocate it in this way. And Allah Knows Best.
After our father had passed away, my brother and I stayed with our mother for twenty years and served her to the best of our effort. However, she asked our other brothers (3) to support her financially but they refused to pay her anything. As a result, she gave her share of the inheritance to me and my brother. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It is recommended to give one`s children, males and females, equally. However, your mother is allowed to give one of them more than the others because he/she is needy or more dutiful to her than the others. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?
When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).
