I have a question regarding the deferred portion of the dowry (Mahr)*. Is the wife entitled to it only upon divorce or she can claim it even if divorce hasn`t taken place? Moreover, does she have the right to claim this portion after death of husband, even if he didn`t divorce her before that?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
In the marriage contract, it is recorded that the deferred portion of the dowry is due upon divorce or death, whatever comes first. If divorce took place first then the woman is entitled to it and if the husband died this amount must be paid from his estate. On the other hand, if the woman died then the husband becomes liable for this portion and it becomes part of the woman`s estate. We advise every husband to give this portion to his wife while alive because it is a right of hers. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* In Islam, a Mahr is the obligation, in the form of money or possessions paid by the groom, to the bride at the time of Islamic marriage (payment also has circumstances on when and how to pay). While the mahr is often money, it can also be anything agreed upon by the bride such as jewelry, home goods, furniture, a dwelling or some land. Mahr is typically specified in the marriage contract signed upon marriage.
What is the ruling on someone who prays Fajr late, after sunrise, knowing that they wake up on time but return to sleep and do not perform it within its time?
It is obligatory to perform the prayer within its prescribed time. If someone wakes up and knows how to act, they must perform it before the time ends. If they delay it, they are sinful and must make it up. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible to offer one Rak`ah in Witr prayer?
The minimum of Witr (An odd number prayer performed between Isha`a and Fajr) prayer is one Rak`ah, and the maximum is eleven, but the minimum of its complete form is three, and it is permissible to offer one only.
If someone unknowingly bought stolen cement multiple times, and if the seller is revealed, will my husband bear any sin?
The sin of the theft falls on the one who stole. However, the person who used the cement must pay its value to the rightful owner from whom it was stolen, and then seek reimbursement from the seller. If the thief compensates the rightful owner, there is no liability on the person who used the cement. And Allah Almighty Knows Best.
