Articles

A Statement on Banning Forbidden Festivals
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 04-09-2014

 

A Statement on Banning Forbidden Festivals

 

All perfect praise be to Allah. Peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon his family and righteous companions.

Calls have recently spread via some means of media for holding festivals that carry exotic names and involve aberrant activities. The most recent of these is the so-called "The Wine Festival"

We stress that calling for such festivals, holding them and taking part in them violates the teachings of our Islamic faith, and they aren`t a part of  our authentic Islamic values as well as the traditions and customs observed in our blessed Jordan of The Hashemites.

On its part, The Iftaa` Department calls on citizens to boycott such festivals which incur corruption to the country and its people.

The Department also calls on the official authorities to ban such events in order to maintain our orthodox faith and the integrity of the Jordanian people.

Moreover, the Department highly appreciates the statement issued by the Ministry of Interior banning such festivals and calling those in charge of them to account.

We beseech Allah, The Almighty, to avert our country all kinds of sins and trials be they seen, or unseen.

And all perfect praise is due to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds.

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on someone who prays but does not fast, without a valid excuse?

Fasting is one of the pillars of Islam, and a Muslim's faith is incomplete if they neglect the obligation of fasting while being physically capable of observing it.

What is the ruling on preparing food for someone who is not fasting in Ramadan?

It is forbidden to prepare food for someone who is breaking their fast without a valid excuse in Ramadan.
Doing so would be assisting in sin, and assisting in sin is itself a sin.
Allah says {what means}: "but help ye not one another in sin and rancour" [Al-Mai`dah/2]

Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?

When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on the prayer of zawal?

 

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is recommended (sunnah) to pray four rakʿāt — either with a single tasleem or as two separate sets of two rakʿāt — immediately following the sun's decline from its zenith (zawāl). This prayer is distinct from the regular Sunnah prayer of Ẓuhr (sunnat al-ẓuhr al-rātibah), as explicitly stated by the Shāfiʿī jurists.
It is mentioned in Nihāyat al-Muḥtāj: "The prayer of zawāl is offered after the sun's decline — so were one to perform it before that, it would not count. It consists of two or four rakʿāt and is distinct from the Sunnah of Ẓuhr, as is evident from the fact that it is mentioned separately after the regular Sunnah prayers, and it becomes a make-up prayer (qaḍāʾ) if a long period of time passes by customary reckoning... Al-ʿAlqamī stated: 'Scholars refer to this as the Sunnah of Zawāl, and it is distinct from the four rakʿāt that constitute the Sunnah of Ẓuhr.' Our shaykh said: Al-Ḥāfiẓ al-ʿIrāqī stated that among those who explicitly affirmed its recommendation was al-Ghazālī in al-Iḥyāʾ, in the chapter on devotional litanies, noting that there is no tasleem between them — meaning there is no break between each pair of rakʿāt."
The time of the sun's decline (zawāl) marks the very beginning of the time for the Ẓuhr prayer.
And Allah the Almighty knows best.