All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Based on the form mentioned in the above question, it is clear that this transaction is a contract of Murabaha to the purchase orderer (MPO). In order to be valid from the perspective of Sharia, this contract must meet a number of conditions. Thus, it is conditioned that the goods are received from the first seller and taken possession of in compliance with the Hadith in which Ibn Abbas (Allah be pleased with them) reported Allah's Messenger (PBUH) as saying: "He who buys food-rain should not sell it until he has taken possession of it. Ibn Abbas (Allah be pleased with them) said: I regard everything like food (so far as this principle is concerned)." {Agreed upon}. Thus, once the goods are taken possession of, they become the liability of the Murabih (Financier)in case of damage.
It is also conditioned that the price of the goods is paid to the first seller by the Murabih, not the client ordering the purchase, or from his money.
It isn`t valid that the client ordering the purchase signs the sale contract until the Murabih takes constructive or actual possession of the goods from the first seller.
In conclusion, it is clear that the above transaction has met the conditions of the Murabaha to the purchase orderer and seems to be valid from the perspective of Sharia. And Allah the Almighty knows best.