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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(247): "Establishing a Private Investment on Endowed Land"

Date Added : 05-12-2017

Resolution No.(247)(16/2017) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Establishing a Private Investment on Endowed Land"

Date: 2/Rabi` Al-Thani/1439, corresponding to 21/11/2017.

 

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his family and companions.

During its 13th session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the question sent from His Excellency the General Manager of Awqaf Properties Investment Fund, and reads as follows:

We would like to bring to Your Grace`s attention that the Ministry of Awqaf owns the endowed lands (175,206,226) located in Irbid, and estimated at (3355 square kilometers). They were endowed in 1984 in exchange for a piece of land, given to Irbid`s Greater Municipality, to be used as a graveyard. In the same year, the afore pieces were allocated for building a Masjid and an Islamic center, as determined by the resolution of the Awqaf Board and the approval of the Municipality. However, an investor has requested establishing a private investment on that land along with building the Masjid and the Islamic center from his own pocket. What`s the ruling of Sharia in this case, knowing that there is already a Masjid which is only 270 meters away from that land.

After deliberating, the Board arrived at the following decision:

If the purpose for which the land was endowed in the first place was achieved, there is no harm in investing the rest of that land for the benefit of the Waqf/endowment. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of Iftaa` Board,

Grand Mufti of Jordan,

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh

Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh, Member

Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaz, Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Esa, Member

Dr. Majid Darawsheh, Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi, Member

Judge Khalid Woraikat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Zo`bi, Member

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on the prayer of zawal?

 

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is recommended (sunnah) to pray four rakʿāt — either with a single tasleem or as two separate sets of two rakʿāt — immediately following the sun's decline from its zenith (zawāl). This prayer is distinct from the regular Sunnah prayer of Ẓuhr (sunnat al-ẓuhr al-rātibah), as explicitly stated by the Shāfiʿī jurists.
It is mentioned in Nihāyat al-Muḥtāj: "The prayer of zawāl is offered after the sun's decline — so were one to perform it before that, it would not count. It consists of two or four rakʿāt and is distinct from the Sunnah of Ẓuhr, as is evident from the fact that it is mentioned separately after the regular Sunnah prayers, and it becomes a make-up prayer (qaḍāʾ) if a long period of time passes by customary reckoning... Al-ʿAlqamī stated: 'Scholars refer to this as the Sunnah of Zawāl, and it is distinct from the four rakʿāt that constitute the Sunnah of Ẓuhr.' Our shaykh said: Al-Ḥāfiẓ al-ʿIrāqī stated that among those who explicitly affirmed its recommendation was al-Ghazālī in al-Iḥyāʾ, in the chapter on devotional litanies, noting that there is no tasleem between them — meaning there is no break between each pair of rakʿāt."
The time of the sun's decline (zawāl) marks the very beginning of the time for the Ẓuhr prayer.
And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on using a patch to suppress hunger or a nicotine patch while fasting?

Fasting is a great act of worship and one of the pillars of Islam. If people knew the immense reward of Ramadan, they would wish for the whole year to be Ramadan.
Whoever eats Suhoor and breaks their fast according to the Sunnah will not experience extreme hardship, making such patches unnecessary.
However, using these patches does not break the fast because they are not a source of nourishment and do not enter the body cavity (jauf) through an open passage.

Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?

A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.

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