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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(204): "Ruling on Aborting the Pregnancy Resulting from Rape"

Date Added : 05-10-2015

Resolution  No.(204) (14/2014), by The Board of Iftaa', Researches and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Aborting the Pregnancy Resulting from Rape"

Date: (16/Zolqhidah/1435  A.H); (11/9/2014  A.D)

 

 

All perfect praise be to Allah. May His blessings and peace be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon his family and companions:

The Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies reviewed, in its eleventh session held on Thursday: (16/Zolqhidah/1435  A.H); (11/9/2014  A.D), the questions sent by some citizens regarding: the ruling on aborting the fetus conceived from incest .

After careful study and deliberation, the Board decided:

Rape is one of the most heinous crimes that involves aggression against man`s dignity and inflicts harm on his soul; therefore, the Muslim scholars have considered it from the “Harabah” (banditry) which makes mischief through the land and violates the honor of human beings, so rapists shall receive the punishment as promised by Allah, The Almighty (What means): “That is their disgrace in this world, and a heavy punishment is theirs in the Hereafter.” {Al-Maidah/33}.

As the pregnancy resulting from this heinous crime leads to multiplying its harm, inciting trials and enmity amongst the members of society, the Board deems guiding the victim to visit the Iftaa` Department so as to understand  the accompanying circumstances of the case and those of the pregnancy as well as that which affects the Sharia ruling in this regard. This is in order for the Board to review each case independently and issue a ruling in line with that which achieves benefit and wards off harm since necessity is assessed and answered proportionately. We beseech Allah to avert us such trials. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Head of the Iftaa` Board, The Grand Mufti of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, His Grace Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh.

Vice Head of the Iftaa`Board, Prof. Ahmad Helayel

Prof. Abduln`nassir Abu Al Bass`al/ Member

His Eminence, Sheikh Sa`ied Hijjawi/ Member

Pro. Mohammad Al-Qhodat/ Member

Dr. Yahia Al-Botoosh/ Member

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Essa/ Member

Dr. Hayel Abdulhafeez/ Member

Dr.Mohammad Al-Zou`bi/ Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it acceptable to perform the Aqiqah for a male child by slaughtering and distributing the first sheep, and bringing the second one cooked from the restaurant?

 

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.

It is permissible to slaughter the first sheep with the intention of Aqiqah (the newborn's sacrificial offering) and distribute it entirely [uncooked], and to slaughter the second sheep and have it cooked at a restaurant to bring home for the household. However, it must be noted that it is obligatory to give some portion of the Aqiqah in charity to the poor, even if it is a small amount, though it is preferable to send the food cooked to them.

Buying a pre-cooked, ready-made sheep from a restaurant does not suffice as an Aqiqah. However, if an agreement is made with the restaurant to explicitly slaughter a sheep with the intention of Aqiqah for the newborn, and then cook it afterward, this is permissible.

In conclusion, slaughtering the sheep and distributing it with the intention of Aqiqah is permissible, and through it, the foundational prophetic tradition (Sunnah) is fulfilled. As for simply buying a cooked sheep from a restaurant that was not specifically slaughtered with the intention of Aqiqah, it will not count as such. Conversely, if the restaurant owner is commissioned (Wakala) to handle both the slaughtering and the cooking as an Aqiqah, it is valid. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it a condition for the mosque where I‘tikaf is performed to hold Jumu‘ah prayers?

No, it is not a condition for the mosque where I‘tikaf is performed to have Jumu‘ah prayers. However, if a person vows to perform continuous I‘tikaf, and Jumu‘ah occurs within that period, then they must observe I‘tikaf in a mosque where Jumu‘ah is held so that they do not break their continuity by leaving for Friday prayer.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is Zakah (obligatory charity) due on land intended for selling?

Yes, lands intended for trade are valued, and Zakah is paid according to their estimated value after a lunar year had lapsed, but if the owner didn`t pay the due Zakah, then he should do so after selling them.

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