What is the ruling on a woman who learns of her divorce or her husband's death after her *ʿiddah* has ended? And does the *ʿiddah* of a woman who abandoned mourning (*iḥdād*) for the whole period of the *ʿiddah*, or part of it, still end, even though she knew that abandoning it is forbidden?**
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
The waiting period of a widow who is not pregnant is four months and ten days, based on the saying of Allah Almighty (which means): “And those of you who die and leave wives behind, they shall wait concerning themselves for four months and ten days” [al-Baqarah/234]. If she is pregnant, her ʿiddah ends with the delivery of her child. The ʿiddah is calculated by lunar months and begins from the date of death.
If her ʿiddah ends before she learns of her husband’s death, or of his divorcing her, she does not observe the ʿiddah upon learning of it, because her ʿiddah has already ended.
It is stated in al-Bayān fī Madhhab al-Imām al-Shāfiʿī (Vol.11/p.41), one of the books of the Shāfiʿī school: “If a man divorces his wife, or dies while he is absent from her, her ʿiddah is from the time of the divorce or from the time of death. If she does not know of the divorce or the death until her ʿiddah period has ended, then her ʿiddah has ended. If she learns of it before the end of the ʿiddah period, she completes her ʿiddah counting from the time of the divorce or death.”
As for a woman who abandoned mourning throughout the ʿiddah while knowing that it is forbidden, she is sinful, although her ʿiddah has nonetheless ended. And Allah Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No.
2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
I read the Qudsī ḥadīth: "Whoever breaks his wuḍūʾ and does not perform ablution has shown me harshness; whoever performs ablution and does not pray has shown me harshness; whoever prays and does not supplicate to Me has shown me harshness; and whoever supplicates to Me and I do not answer him, then I have been harsh to him, and I am not a harsh Lord." What is the authenticity of this ḥadīth?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
This ḥadīth was mentioned by al-Ṣaghānī (may Allah have mercy on him) in al-Mawḍūʿāt (p. 43), where he said: “Among them is their saying: ‘Whoever breaks his wuḍūʾ and does not perform ablution has shown me harshness; whoever performs ablution and does not pray has shown me harshness; (whoever prays and does not supplicate to Me has shown me harshness); and whoever supplicates to Me and I do not answer him, then I have been harsh to him, and I am not a harsh Lord.’”
Al-ʿAjlūnī (may Allah have mercy on him) cited what al-Ṣaghānī said in Kashf al-Khafāʾ (Vol.2/p.264). And Allah Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling of Islamic Law on colleagues alternating overtime shifts and receiving wages for absent days?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
An employee is religiously obligated to abide by the instructions and regulations pertaining to overtime hours. Furthermore, it is mandatory to adhere to honesty and avoid deceit, circumvention, and falsehood. Allah Almighty says (what means): "O you who have believed, be conscious of Allah and be with those who are truthful."
(At-Tawbah/119).
Therefore, whoever is assigned to work overtime must remain present at the designated workplace, even if no active tasks are required of them during that time.
Likewise, the official authorized to approve overtime work must comply with all established conditions and regulatory guidelines. It is impermissible for them to grant overtime hours in violation of system regulations. Should any compensation be disbursed in contravention of these official rules, it is unlawful to accept or consume such wages. And Allah Almighty knows best.
