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Statement on Criminalizing the Father Killing his Child
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 08-06-2023

Statement on Criminalizing the Father Killing his Child

 

Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

 

According to the general rule in Sharia, the relationship between the father and his children should be based on love, respect, guidance and advice, and through these foundations the father undertakes the task of upbringing them in a sound manner. Since children are not infallible, parents should direct them with sound educational methods and avoid violence as discipline does not only mean punishment, but the educator should always take into account the best interest of the child.

 

Sharia forbids the father to discipline his child to the point of harming him/her, and this act is considered a major sin if it led to the death of the child. This is because discipline is of no avail when the child has turned into a dead body and the father into a murderous criminal?

 

Islam has forbidden taking life unjustly and made this one of the major sins. Allah says {What means}: "If a man kills a believer intentionally, his recompense is Hell, to abide therein (For ever): And the wrath and the curse of God are upon him, and a dreadful penalty is prepared for him." {An-Nisa`, 93}. Ibn 'Umar (May Allah bepleased with them) reported: Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said, "A believer continues to guard his Faith (and thus hopes for Allah's Mercy) so long as he does not shed blood unjustly"[Al-Bukhari].

 

The Messenger of Allah (PBUH) ordered us to avoid the seven destructive sins and mentioned taking life, which Allah made sacred, except for a just cause as one of them. According to Islam, human life has sanctity and preserving it is one of the five necessities. Allah says {What means}: " if any one slew a person - unless it be for murder or for spreading mischief in the land - it would be as if he slew the whole people: and if any one saved a life, it would be as if he saved the life of the whole people." {Al-Ma`dah, 32}.

 

Therefore, we call on all parents to apply the peaceful educational methods of education and discipline, using the modern means that are consistent with our purified Sharia in order to have a conscious generation that assumes its responsibilities in building the country and the nation, and Allah the Almighty knows best.

The General Iftaa` Department.

 

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on one who wiped over his leather socks (*khuff*) while resident and then traveled, or wiped while traveling and then became resident? And likewise, what is the ruling on one who incurred a minor ritual impurity (*ḥadath aṣghar*) while resident, then traveled and wiped while traveling?

 

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Whoever wipes over his leather socks (khuffayn) while resident and then travels, or wipes while traveling and then becomes resident, before a day and a night have passed in both cases, completes the wiping period of a resident. If he wipes while resident and then travels after a day and a night have passed, he must remove the socks, because the period has ended. Likewise, if he wipes while traveling and then becomes resident after a day and a night have passed, he must remove them as well.
Whoever breaks his wuḍūʾ while resident and then wipes while traveling takes the ruling of a traveler as regards the duration of wiping, so long as he does not become resident. It is stated in ʿUmdat al-Sālik wa ʿUddat al-Nāsik (Vol.1/p.15): “If he wipes over both [socks] or one of them while resident and then travels, or wipes while traveling and then becomes resident, or doubts whether he began the wiping while traveling or while resident, he completes only the wiping period of a resident. But if he broke his wuḍūʾ while resident and wiped while traveling, he completes the period of a traveler, whether or not the full time of a prayer had passed over him while resident.” And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on waiving a debt owed by a debtor and counting it toward zakāh?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Waiving a debt owed by a debtor, with the intention of counting it toward zakāh, does not fulfill the zakāh obligation. Rather, it constitutes an ordinary act of charity, for which Allah rewards the giver generously — since one of the conditions for the validity of zakāh is that the person paying it must form the intention of zakāh at the actual moment the wealth is paid out. In this case, the debt has already been established as a standing obligation upon the borrower, so it is not valid to simply redirect the intention toward zakāh after the fact.
It is preferable, instead, for the creditor to first collect the debt from the debtor, and then return to him the amount of money he is required to pay as zakāh — or a portion of it — if the debtor happens to fall under one of the eight categories that Allah, the Exalted, has commanded be given from zakāh.
It is stated in ‘Umdat as-Sālik, from the books of the Shāfi‘ī school: "If someone gives [money] to a poor person, stipulating that the recipient return it to him in payment of a debt owed to him, or says, 'I am making what you owe me into zakāh, so take it [as such]' — this is not valid. But if he gives it to him with the [unstated] intention that the recipient will use it to repay him, or says, 'Repay what you owe me, so that I may [then separately] give it to you as zakāh,' or the debtor himself says, 'Give it to me, so that I may [then] repay you with it' — this is valid, and there is no binding obligation for the recipient to actually fulfill this [informal understanding]." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on swearing on the Holy Quran and breaking that oath?

It is impermissible to swear on the Holy Quran in vain, and it is also impermissible to subject it to such an act since breaking the oath after swearing on the Quran entails an expiation.

Does using a respiratory device (oxygen) affect the validity of fasting?

Using an oxygen device does not affect the validity of fasting because oxygen is a gas with no physical substance.
However, if medicinal substances with physical particles are added to the oxygen, its use would break the fast, as it enters the body cavity through a natural passage.

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