What is the ruling on brown discharge before the menstrual period? Is it considered part of menstruation (Hayd)?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
Dusky discharge (Kudrah), reddish discharge (Humrah), and yellowish discharge (Sufrah) are all considered menstruation (Hayd) if they occur during the time of the menstrual cycle. If their duration exceeds a day and a night, and the period persists from the first sight of the discharge until the cessation of the menstrual blood—provided the total duration does not exceed fifteen days—then all of it is menstruation. However, if the duration exceeds fifteen days, then the discharge is not considered menstruation, but rather chronic irregular bleeding (Istihadah). And Allah the Exalted knows best.
Is the one who gives up on marriage because he can`t afford it considered sinful?
Marriage is desirable, but one who can`t afford it isn`t considered sinful. However, he should supplicate to Allah, and seek His forgiveness.
Is it permissible to use unscented petroleum jelly (Vaseline) during ‘Umrah, in order to prevent skin chafing or irritation?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
According to the Shāfi‘ī school, it is permissible for someone in the state of iḥrām to use oils and creams free of perfume/fragrance on parts of the body other than the head and beard, for a genuine medical need — such as preventing skin chafing or irritation. However, applying them to the head or beard remains unlawful.
Shaykh al-Islām, Imam an-Nawawī (raḥimahullāh), says in al-Majmū‘ (Vol.7/P.279): "Oils are of two types: the first is an oil that is neither perfumed itself nor contains any perfume — such as olive oil, sesame oil, ghee, butter, walnut oil, almond oil, and similar oils. The use of this type is not unlawful anywhere on the body, except on the head and beard — where its use is unlawful without any disagreement [among the scholars]." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?
When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).