Is the prayer of a woman who is led by an Imam via T.V. permissible?
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions. Amongst the conditions for the validity of prayer is that both the Imam and those led by him must be in the same place. Thus, the prayer of the person who is being led by a televised Imam is invalid unless he/she was with him in the same mosque. And Allah Knows Best.
How does one with a continuous condition (like urinary incontinence or non-menstrual vaginal bleeding - mustahada) perform ablution?
A person with a continuous condition must do three things:
1. Not perform ablution except after the prayer time has entered.
2. Change the bag or diaper placed to reduce the flow of urine or blood after the prayer time enters, wash the private part from blood or urine, and perform ablution immediately.
3. Perform the actions of ablution in immediate succession, then pray immediately without delay, unless he intends to pray with the congregation.
It is not permissible for a person with a continuous condition to combine two obligatory prayers with one ablution, as he must perform ablution for each obligatory prayer, even if making it up (qada'). And Allah the Almighty knows best.
Which is more excellent for a woman: to pray in the mosque or in her house?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
Our Master the Prophet ﷺ said: 'It is more excellent for a woman to pray in her house than in her courtyard, and more excellent for her to pray in her private chamber than in her house.' Therefore, a woman’s adherence to her home and her refraining from going to the mosques—in obedience to the command of Allah the Exalted—attains a great reward and abundant recompense. Furthermore, women praying in congregation within their homes is better than their attendance at the mosques, based on the aforementioned Hadith. And Allah the Exalted knows best.
Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?
When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).
