What is the ruling on the use of an inhaler by a *muḥrim* (a person in the state of *iḥrām*)? [An inhaler is a medicinal device used for inhalation, containing various herbal ingredients.]؟
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is permissible for the muḥrim (a person in the state of iḥrām) to use incense (bakhūr), sprays, and inhalers that contain aromatic substances for the purpose of treatment, because the intention is medical treatment, not the use of perfume (taṭayyub). No expiation (fidyah) is required of him for doing so.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī ʿalā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.2/p.455): “That which is intended for eating or for medical treatment, even if it has a pleasant scent, such as apples, spikenard (sunbul), and the various fragrant spices such as mastic (muṣṭakā), is not forbidden, and no fidyah is due for it, because what is intended for eating or treatment carries no fidyah.”. And Allah Almighty knows best.
What is Aqeeqah?
It is the sheep slaughtered on the seventh day from the child`s birth, and it is a confirmed Sunnah after the Prophet (PBUH).
I bought an apartment, and I am saving money to pay the remaining balance of its price — is zakāh obligatory on this money?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh is obligatory on all saved/hoarded wealth. Once the total wealth reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah— equivalent to the value of 85 grams of pure 24-karat gold) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it, zakāh becomes obligatory at a rate of (2.5%) — even if the wealth is earmarked for basic future needs, and even if the wealth's owner is in debt. Debt does not prevent the obligation of zakāh, nor is it deducted when calculating the zakāh due, based on the general and unrestricted wording of all the Qur'anic verses commanding zakāh, which draw no distinction between someone in debt and anyone else.
It is stated in ‘Umdat as-Sālik, from the books of the Shāfi‘ī school: "If someone possesses exactly the niṣāb, and owes an equivalent amount in debt, zakāh remains obligatory on what is in his possession, and the debt does not prevent this obligation" — meaning, the obligation of zakāh on what is presently in his possession.
The ḥawl (annual cycle) recognized for zakāh, as well as for the other sharī‘ah obligations that Allah, the Exalted, has imposed upon Muslims, is the Hijrī (lunar) year. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No.
2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
