Articles

Poses on Enjoining Obligatory Prayer
Author : Dr. Mohammad bani Taha
Date Added : 25-04-2017

 

 

 

Poses on Enjoining Obligatory Prayer, A Flashback to Isra` and Mi`raj

 

 

 

By Dr. Mufti Mohammad Bani Taha

 

All praise be to Allah Who privileged His Slave and Messenger with the miracle of Isra` and Mi`raj. This great event was meant to comfort, support, and honor Prophet Mohammad (PBUH) where he was shown one of Allah`s countless signs and graces, and may peace and blessings be upon him and his followers. 

Just as the Prophet was honored with Isra` and Mi`raj, so was his nation since the five daily prayers were prescribed in that great journey, and what an honor that is!! The following points shed more light on this subject:

• The Prophet (PBUH) was taken on this nocturnal journey during "the year of sorrow" in which his beloved wife Khadijah and his uncle and protector Abu Talib died. Moreover, Allah has prescribed prayer as a refuge for every distressed Muslim. Therefore, when distress befalls a Muslim, he should seek refuge in prayer. Hudhaifah said: "When anything distressed the Prophet (PBUH), he prayed." [Abu Dawood].

 

• Allah's Messenger (PBUH) said: "While I was at Mecca, the roof of my house was opened and Gabriel descended, opened my chest, and washed it with Zamzam water. Then he brought a golden tray full of wisdom and faith and having poured its contents into my chest, he closed it." [Al-Bukhari]. Similarly, when a Muslim is about to pray, he should clear his heart and soul from worldly concerns, just as he should wash his body and clothes from impurities.    

                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                       

• Chapter "Al-Isra`" has mentioned Al-Masjid Al-Aqsa although, at that time, its landmarks were wiped out, and Christians attempted to erase them in order to exasperate the Jews, and no prayer was held there for hundreds of years. Despite all of this, it was called a Masjid since a place dedicated for prayer remains called as such forever due to the greatness of this ritual.

 

 

• The Prophet (Peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) led the other Prophets in prayer during the Isra’ (Night Journey). This indicates that Islamic Law abrogated former Laws. As a result, prayer, due to its significance, became at the forefront of Islamic Law (Sharia). Just as he (PBUH) led them in prayer, his Law dominated and governed other Laws.

 

 

• The Prophet (PBUH) passed by the Oft-frequented House, which embodies to the people of Heaven what al-Masjid al-Haram embodies to the people of earth. Every day, seventy thousand angels enter that House to pray, but they will return to it only on the Day of Resurrection. Moreover, just as the people of earth observe prayer as an act of worship, so do the people of Heaven.

 

 

• Prayer was prescribed directly from Allah, in the seventh heaven, indicating its greatness and honorable status as the link between the slave and His Lord.

In conclusion, keeping the above points in mind helps the Muslim offer prayers with submissive humbleness that The Lord of The Worlds accepts from him and elevates his status for. We beseech Him to accept our acts of obedience, and the last of our prayers is that All Perfect Praise be to The Lord of The Worlds.

 

The published article reflects the opinion of its author

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on working in hotels?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is permissible to work in hotels, restaurants, and shops in jobs that involve no direct handling of forbidden things and do not assist in them, such as administrative work.
As for jobs in which one directly handles forbidden things or assists in them, such as serving, transporting, or purchasing alcohol, receiving payment for it, or agreeing to buy it, working in them is forbidden, based on the saying of Allah the Mighty and Majestic: “And cooperate in righteousness and piety, but do not cooperate in sin and aggression. And fear Allah; indeed, Allah is severe in penalty.” [al-Māʾidah/2]
The basic nature of the work of hotels and restaurants is permissible, and the sin of any forbidden element that arises incidentally in some of what takes place in a hotel or restaurant is borne by those who run it.
The scholars have also permitted dealing with one whose lawful wealth is mixed with unlawful wealth, as previously explained in Fatwa no. (2697). And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, and is it permissible to slaughter the ewe if one knows it is pregnant?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a person slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, the fetus becomes lawful (ḥalāl) by virtue of its mother's slaughter (tabaʿan li-ummihā).
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.6/P.158): "A fetus found dead [after the mother's slaughter], or found alive but in a state resembling that of a slaughtered animal [i.e., dying shortly after], becomes lawful — whether or not it had grown fur — provided it is found in the womb of a mother that was lawfully slaughtered, whether her slaughter was by cutting the throat, or by an arrow or hunting dog sent after her. This is based on the ḥadīth: 'The slaughtering of the fetus is [effected by] the slaughtering of its mother' [narrated by al-Tirmidhī, who graded it ḥasan, and by Ibn Ḥibbān, who graded it ṣaḥīḥ] — meaning that the slaughter which rendered the mother lawful renders the fetus lawful as well, by virtue of following her; and because the fetus is one of her constituent parts, and her slaughter renders lawful all of her parts."
This ruling differs, however, from the case of one who knows from the outset that the ewe is pregnant [and intends to sacrifice her specifically as the udḥiyah while pregnant] — in which case, according to the Shāfi'ī school, she does not fulfill the requirement of a valid sacrifice.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī 'alā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.4/P.335): "A pregnant animal does not fulfill the requirement [of a valid sacrifice], and this is the authoritative position (al-mu'tamad), because pregnancy diminishes the quality of the meat. As for why such an animal is nevertheless counted as complete [i.e., fully valid] in matters of zakāh, that is because the intent there is reproduction (nasl), not the quality of the meat.". And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.