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The Participation in Elections is a Trust and a Constitutional Right
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 11-11-2020

 

The Participation in Elections is a Trust and a Constitutional Right

 

Participating in parliamentary elections is legitimate, in addition to being a constitutional right, a national duty and a trust, which a citizen should preserve and deliver properly. It is also a testimony for which he/she will be called to account before Almighty Allah since He Says (What means): "Their testimony will be recorded and they will be questioned." [Al-Zukhruf/19].

 

A voter should be keen on electing the strong and trusty candidate because Allah Says (What means): "Said one of the (damsels): "O my (dear) father! engage him on wages: truly the best of men for thee to employ is the (man) who is strong and trusty...." [Al-Qasas/26]. Consequently, whoever votes for a non-eligible candidate betrays the trust of Allah and His Messenger and misappropriates knowingly things entrusted to him/her. This is attested to in the verse where Allah Says (What means): "O ye that believe! betray not the trust of God and the Apostle, nor misappropriate knowingly things entrusted to you." [Al-Anfal/27]. 

Members of parliament who have these traits are expected to perform the duties for which they are elected.

 

Elections provide a legitimate way for the people to elect members of parliament (MPs) and it is one of the Shura mechanisms acknowledged by Sharia, as indicated by extensive evidence from the Quran and the Prophetic Sunnah. Not only that, but the companions had applied this mechanism at the beginning of the history of Islam. Earlier, members of parliament used to be known as "Urafa" (Headmen). The Prophet (PBUH) used to check with them about people`s opinions on public issues where he (PBUH) used to say: "Go back so that your 'Urafa' may submit your decision to us." [Bukhari].

 

We also remind everyone to follow the health directives in terms of wearing masks, keeping social distance during the electoral process, and following other protective measures to preserve lives and safety of everyone because it was narrated from Ibn 'Abbas that the Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said: "There should be neither harming nor reciprocating harm."

 

 

 

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on using toothpaste during the day in Ramadan?

Using toothpaste does not break the fast as long as nothing reaches the body cavity. However, it is disliked (makruh).
It is preferable for a fasting person to use it before the time of fast starts or after Iftar (breaking the fast) to avoid risking their fast.

What is the ruling on congregational prayer performed outside the mosque, and is it a condition that it be performed in a mosque in order to attain the full reward?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is not a condition for attaining the reward of congregational prayer that it be performed in a mosque; however, a Muslim should still be keen to perform his prayers in the mosque, so as not to miss out on immense reward. This is due to the virtue of the mosque and of spending time there (i‘tikāf), the typically larger number of worshippers present, and the additional reward gained through walking to and from the mosque. On the authority of Abū Hurayrah (raḍiyallāhu ‘anh), the Messenger of Allah ﷺ said: "Whoever purifies himself in his house, then walks to one of the houses of Allah to fulfill one of the obligations Allah has prescribed, one of his steps will erase a sin, and the other will raise him a degree [in status]." (Related by Muslim)
Whoever misses congregational prayer at the mosque should still strive to pray in congregation at his workplace, or together with the members of his household. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on swearing an oath by the Prophet ﷺ, and does such an oath take effect according to Imām Aḥmad ibn Ḥanbal, requiring expiation upon its breach?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Swearing an oath by a created being is disliked (makrūh) in our Shāfiʿī school. Shaykh al-Islām Imām al-Nawawī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "Swearing by a created being is disliked — such as swearing by the Prophet, the Kaʿbah, Jibrīl, the Companions, or the Prophet's family. Al-Shāfiʿī, may Allah have mercy upon him, said: 'I fear that swearing by other than Allah the Almighty may constitute an act of disobedience.' The scholars of the school explained this to mean: that is, something forbidden and sinful — indicating that he had some hesitation in the matter. Al-Imām stated: the established position of the school is that it is categorically not forbidden, but rather disliked. Furthermore, whoever swears by a created being, his oath does not take effect and no expiation (kaffārah) is required if he breaks it." [Rawḍat al-Ṭālibīn wa ʿUmdat al-Muftīn, Vol. 11/P.6]
According to the Ḥanbalī school, however, expiation becomes obligatory upon one who swears by our master the Prophet ﷺ and then breaks his oath. Imām al-Bahūtī al-Ḥanbalī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "No expiation is required for swearing by other than Allah the Almighty, even if the oath is broken — because expiation was made obligatory for swearing by Allah and His attributes, out of reverence for His names, and nothing else is equal to Him in this regard... except in the case of swearing by our Prophet Muḥammad ﷺ, for expiation becomes obligatory when one swears by him and then breaks the oath. This was explicitly stated in the narration of Abū Ṭālib, because he is one of the two conditions of the two testimonies of faith by which a disbeliever becomes a Muslim. Ibn ʿAqīl held the view that swearing by any of the other prophets, peace and blessings be upon them all, carries the same ruling." [Sharḥ Muntahā al-Irādāt, Vol. 3/P.441]. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.