My father has debts and asked me to repay them years ago, and I promised him I would do so upon his death — is it permissible for me to go back on my promise given that I am unable to repay them, especially since he refuses to contribute to repayment on the grounds that the debt has become my responsibility by virtue of my promise?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
The established principle is that a father's debt is to be repaid from his own wealth, if he possesses sufficient means. As for the promise made by the son to repay it on his father's behalf, fulfilling such a promise is strongly recommended, and breaking it is considerably disliked. Shaykh al-Islām Imām al-Nawawī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "Fulfilling a promise is emphatically recommended, and breaking it is severely disliked. The evidences for this from the Qurʾān and the Sunnah are well known." [Rawḍat al-Ṭālibīn,Vol. 2/P.278] Shaykh al-Islām Imām Zakariyyā al-Anṣārī, may Allah have mercy upon him, further states: "The reason fulfilling a promise is not obligatory and breaking it is not forbidden is that a promise is in the nature of a gift, and a gift does not become binding except upon receipt." [Asnā al-Maṭālib fī Sharḥ Rawḍ al-Ṭālib,Vol. 2/P.487]
Given that the son does not possess the financial means to fulfil his promise to his father, breaking this promise falls beyond his capacity — and Allah does not burden a soul beyond what it can bear. Since the father himself possesses sufficient wealth to settle his own debt, repayment must be made from his own funds. Should he pass away before doing so, the debt is to be settled from his estate. And Allah the Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling of Islamic Law on a father shaking hands with his son’s wife after she has been divorced three times?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
The wife of one’s son is among the women permanently prohibited to the husband’s father as soon as the marriage contract is concluded, based on the saying of Allah the Exalted: “Prohibited to you are your mothers, your daughters, your sisters, your paternal aunts, your maternal aunts, your brother’s daughters, your sister’s daughters, your foster mothers, your foster sisters, your wives’ mothers, and your stepdaughters under your guardianship [born] of your wives with whom you have consummated marriage. But if you have not consummated marriage with them, there is no sin upon you. [Also prohibited are] the wives of your sons who are from your loins, and that you take [in marriage] two sisters simultaneously, except for what has already occurred. Indeed, Allah is ever Forgiving and Merciful.” [al-Nisāʾ/23]
This prohibition begins once the son’s marriage contract with his wife is complete, and it remains in force even if the son separates from her before consummation or before any seclusion (khalwah) with her. It is therefore permissible for the father to shake her hand and to be alone with her, provided there is no fitnah (temptation) and no suspicion.
It is stated in ʿUmdat al-Sālik (p. 204): “It is forbidden to marry… the wives of one’s fathers and of one’s sons. All of these women become prohibited by the mere contract, … all of that being a permanent prohibition.” End quote, with slight adaptation. And Allah Almighty knows best.
When is the prayer considered *adāʾ* (performed within its time): upon rising from the bowing (*rukūʿ*), or after rising from the prostration (*sujūd*)?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Whoever catches one complete rakʿah within the prayer's time has caught the prayer as an on-time (adāʾ) prayer. The rakʿah is complete when the worshipper raises his head from the second prostration (sajdah), even if he has not yet reached the degree of standing in which the recitation is valid.
It is stated in Nihāyat al-Muḥtāj (Vol.1/p.378): "What is meant by the rakʿah is the completion of all of it, with its two prostrations." End quote.
And in Ḥāshiyat al-Shabrāmallisī: "(His saying: 'a rakʿah') means that he raises his head from the second prostration, even if he has not reached the degree in which the recitation is valid." And Allah Almighty knows best.
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Note on terminology: Adāʾ refers to performing the prayer within its prescribed time, as opposed to qaḍāʾ (making it up after its time has ended).
If a woman becomes pure from menstruation before the Fajr Adhan in Ramadan, is she required to fast?
If a woman becomes pure (from menstrual period) before the Fajr Adhan, she must fast, as the impediment preventing her from fasting has been removed. The Sharia maxim in this regard states: "When the impediment is removed, the obligation returns."
She should then make the intention to fast before Fajr and perform ghusl (ritual purification) for prayer, whether before or after Fajr.
