What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
Is it permissible for a suitor to go out with his fiancé upon the conclusion of the marriage contract?
Upon the conclusion of the marriage contract, the woman becomes lawful for her husband. However, the customary practice should be observed in this regard since rights could be lost in case of divorce, or death.
What is the ruling on having an intention (Niyyah) for every prayer?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
Intention (Niyyah) is a pillar (Rukn) without which the prayer is not valid. The worshiper must have an intention for every prayer, meaning they must consciously intend the act of worship they are performing. Its timing must coincide with the opening Takbir (Takbirat al-Ihram). It is not a requirement to utter it verbally; rather, doing so is considered a recommended Sunnah. There are three levels of intention:
1-If the prayer is obligatory (Fard): It is mandatory to include the Intent (to pray), the Specification (which prayer, e.g., 'Asr), and the Obligation (recognizing it as a Fard). For example, one should bring to mind or say: 'I intend to pray the Fard of 'Asr.'
2-If it is a voluntary prayer restricted by a specific time or cause (Sunnah Muqayyadah): It is mandatory to include the Intent and the Specification. For example: 'I intend to pray the Sunnah before Zuhr' or 'I intend to pray Duha.'
3-If it is an absolute voluntary prayer (Nafl Mutlaq): It is sufficient to simply have the Intent to pray. For example: 'I intend to pray.'
And Allah the Exalted knows best.
What is the ruling of Islamic Law on saying the basmalah at the beginning of wudu`?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Saying the basmalah (Bismillāh) at the beginning of wuḍūʾ is a sunnah. It is stated in al-Minhāj al-Qawīm Sharḥ al-Muqaddimah al-Ḥaḍramiyyah (p. 27): “Its sunnahs include the siwāk, then the tasmiyah (saying Bismillāh), joined with the intention (niyyah), at the start of washing the hands.” And Allah Almighty knows best.
