When is the prayer considered *adāʾ* (performed within its time): upon rising from the bowing (*rukūʿ*), or after rising from the prostration (*sujūd*)?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Whoever catches one complete rakʿah within the prayer's time has caught the prayer as an on-time (adāʾ) prayer. The rakʿah is complete when the worshipper raises his head from the second prostration (sajdah), even if he has not yet reached the degree of standing in which the recitation is valid.
It is stated in Nihāyat al-Muḥtāj (Vol.1/p.378): "What is meant by the rakʿah is the completion of all of it, with its two prostrations." End quote.
And in Ḥāshiyat al-Shabrāmallisī: "(His saying: 'a rakʿah') means that he raises his head from the second prostration, even if he has not reached the degree in which the recitation is valid." And Allah Almighty knows best.
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Note on terminology: Adāʾ refers to performing the prayer within its prescribed time, as opposed to qaḍāʾ (making it up after its time has ended).
What is the ruling of Islamic Law on speaking with one's fiancée (before the marriage contract) by telephone and WhatsApp?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Before the marriage contract, the two engaged persons remain non-mahram (strangers) to one another. Reciting al-Fātiḥah, receiving some money on account of the dowry (mahr), or accepting a gift are all merely a promise of marriage and not a valid contract under the Sharīʿah.
It is therefore forbidden for the engaged couple, before the marriage contract is concluded, to be alone together (khalwah) or to shake hands. It is likewise forbidden to speak by telephone or correspond without need. And Allah Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling on someone who doesn`t perform prayer?
All perfect praise be to Allah,The Lord of The Worlds Not performing prayer is a major sin, and one who doesn`t pray out of laziness is considered an oft-sinner ;whereas, the one who denies that it is mandatory is considered a disbeliever. And Allah Knows Best.
If a woman becomes pure from menstruation before the Fajr Adhan in Ramadan, is she required to fast?
If a woman becomes pure (from menstrual period) before the Fajr Adhan, she must fast, as the impediment preventing her from fasting has been removed. The Sharia maxim in this regard states: "When the impediment is removed, the obligation returns."
She should then make the intention to fast before Fajr and perform ghusl (ritual purification) for prayer, whether before or after Fajr.
