What is the ruling of Islamic Law on shaving body hair and clipping the nails for one who is in a state of major ritual impurity (*junub*)?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is recommended for one in a state of major ritual impurity (junub) not to remove anything from his body until after the ritual bath (ghusl). It is stated in Bushrā al-Karīm bi-Sharḥ Masāʾil al-Taʿlīm (p. 135): “It is recommended for one in a state of janābah and the like not to remove anything from his body until after ghusl, because the parts of the body return to him in the Hereafter, and he returns in a state of janābah, as a rebuke to him. Then it is removed from him, except for the original parts. It is said that every hair demands its due for its janābah.”
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Shabrāmallisī ʿalā Nihāyat al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.341): “If he wishes to combine shaving and the Friday ghusl, he should delay the shaving until after the ghusl if he is in a state of janābah, so that the ghusl removes its trace from the hair.” And Allah Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling on someone who eats or drinks thinking that the sun has set, then realizes that it has not yet set?
Whoever eats or drinks believing that the sun has set, then later discovers that it has not yet set, their fast is invalid, and they must make up that day after Ramadan. It is not permissible to break the fast before confirming sunset—either by seeing it, through personal reasoning, or by relying on the statement of someone trustworthy in their religious commitment.
Is the prayer of a woman who is led by an Imam via T.V. permissible?
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions. Amongst the conditions for the validity of prayer is that both the Imam and those led by him must be in the same place. Thus, the prayer of the person who is being led by a televised Imam is invalid unless he/she was with him in the same mosque. And Allah Knows Best.
What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No.
2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
