What is the ruling of Islam on swearing by Allah without intending to take an actual oath?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
If someone swears by Allah without intending to take an actual oath, and without the firm resolve to bind themselves to it, then there is no sin or expiation (Kaffarah) required of them. Allah the Exalted says {what means}: 'God will not call you to account for thoughtlessness in your oaths, but for the intention in your hearts; and He is Oft-forgiving, Most Forbearing.' [Al-Baqarah/225]. However, a Muslim should avoid swearing oaths excessively so that their tongue does not become accustomed to it. Allah the Exalted says {what means}: 'And make not God’s (name) an excuse in your oaths against doing good, or acting rightly, or making peace between persons; for God is One Who heareth and knoweth all things.
' [Al-Baqarah/224]. And Allah the Exalted knows best."
Is it permissible for a person to give the Zakah (obligatory charity) to his daughter-in-law?
Yes, it is permissible for a person to give the Zakah to his daughter-in-law if she was poor, and none provided for particularly by whom are obliged to provide for her. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a pious Muslim woman to stay with her husband who had quit praying out of laziness?
Quitting prayer is one of the major grave sins that come after disbelieving in Allah, but the wife of such a person isn`t considered divorced, rather, she should exert all her efforts in order to bring him back to the way of Islam. However, if his sin is likely to lure her from the way of Islam, then she had better separate from him by lawful means such as Mokhal`aa (When a wife pays a compensation for her husband in return for divorcing her). Moreover, if she exercises patience, and remains steadfast on her faith, then there is no harm in doing that.
I`m keeping a plot of land (10 Dunums) for my children. Is it liable for Zakah?
Praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds.
Land that is purchased with the intention of ownership and personal benefit—meaning to retain it for use and not for trade—is not subject to zakāh, as such property is not considered from trade commodities (ʿurūḍ al-tijārah).
It is stated in Al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr:
“If it is property and one intends it for trade, then zakāh is due upon it; but if he intends it for personal possession, then no zakāh is due upon it.” And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
