If a man said to his wife, "Consider yourself divorced," and he intended a divorce, and the wife agreed to the divorce. Also, if she said to him, "Divorce me," and he replied to her saying, "Consider yourself divorced"; fulfilling her request, is it correct to say that silence cannot be attributed to a statement, and therefore we apply to her the decision of the Court of Appeal No. (60028), which is that the divorce is not valid because this word is not considered one of the words of divorce, or do we effect one instance of divorce upon her, especially since this word has many possibilities, and there may be many decisions for this word in the courts, so what is the ruling of Sharia on that?