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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(249): "Ruling on Inviting Doctors to Attend Scientific Conferences and Meetings"

Date Added : 09-06-2020

Resolution No. (249)(18/2017) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Inviting Doctors to Attend Scientific Conferences and Meeting"

Date: (2/ Rabie` 2nd/1439 AH), corresponding to (21/11/2017 AD).

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all His family and companions.

On the above date, the Board received a question sent from a Jordanian citizen to the Electronic Website of the General Iftaa` Department. It stated as follows:

What is the ruling of Sharia on the invitations sent to doctors by pharmaceutical companies to attend scientific conferences overseas, knowing that travel and accommodation expenses are covered by the companies themselves? Also, what is the ruling on inviting doctors to scientific lectures accompanied with a fancy business lunch or dinner at a state hotel?

After deliberating, the Board arrived at the following decision:

It is permissible for doctors to take sample medications offered by representatives of pharmaceutical companies as well as attend academic conferences, provided that they adhere to the following rules of Sharia and the medical profession:

First: It doesn`t affect the doctor`s decision in prescribing the medication that suits the patient`s condition.

Second: The doctor takes the financial condition of the patient into consideration.

Third: The doctor adheres to the rules and regulations governing this sector in the ministry or party with whom he works. 

Fourth: The doctor`s aim is to achieve progress in his field of specialty and benefit the patients.

In conclusion, treatment is the responsibility of the doctor before Almighty Allah. He/she should observe the rules of Sharia and the moral code. Therefore, if the afore invitations and conferences could undermined his/her adherence to the above rules, then they should be turned down. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Chairman of Iftaa` Board

Grand Mufti of Jordan

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh

Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh, Member

Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaz, Member

Dr. Majid Darawsheh, Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Esa, Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi, Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat, Member

Judge Khalid Woraikat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Zo`bi, Member

 

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What should someone do if they fasted for only 28 days in their country and then traveled to a place where Eid has already been declared?

If a person fasts in their country and then travels to another country where Eid has been declared, they must celebrate Eid with the people of that country.
● If their total fasts add up to 29 days, nothing is required of them.
● However, if they have only fasted 28 days, they must make up one day after Eid, because an Islamic month cannot be only 28 days.

Is washing the private part after urinating (Istinjaa`) a condition, and is it done with water and soap, or with water only?

Istinjaa` is obligatory for removing impurity, and it can be done with toilet paper, or a stone, or water. It is preferable to do Istinjaa` first with paper, or stone, or the like, then to wash the private part with water until making sure that the impurity has been removed. Using soap is not a condition, but there is no harm in doing so provided that it is washed off with water. It is also permissible to use either water, or paper if impurity is removed by any.

What is the ruling on a woman using contraception without her husband's knowledge if he is mistreating her?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is not permissible for a woman to use any means of delaying pregnancy without her husband's knowledge, consent, and mutual agreement. This is because having children is a sharʿī right belonging to both spouses equally in Islamic law. Imām al-Māwardī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "The right to a child from a free woman is shared between them both" — meaning between the two spouses. [al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr, 9/320]
It is therefore not permissible for either spouse to make a unilateral decision regarding the prevention of pregnancy without the consent of the other. We advise both spouses to discuss the matter with wisdom and mutual respect, so as to resolve any disagreement and arrive at a suitable solution that serves the interests of them both. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?

A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.

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