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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

"Resolution No. (246): "Ruling on Zakah of Associations and Unions' Funds"

Date Added : 04-12-2017

Resolution No. (246) by the Board of Iftaa', Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Zakah of Associations and Unions' Funds"

Date 2/Rabi' Al-Thani/1439 AH, corresponding to 21/11/2017 AD

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.

During its 13th session held on the above date, the Board of Iftaa', Research and Islamic Studies reviewed the letter sent from the Chairman of Jordan Housing Developers Association, and reads as follows:" We would like to ask about the Sharia Ruling on the Zakah's Nisaab {Minimum amount liable for Zakah}of the nonprofit funds of the Associations and Unions such as Jordan Housing Developers Association whose incomes consist of membership fees and other members' annual subscriptions. Moreover, these funds are distributed on the association's activities, employees' salaries, rents and many other activities. Yet, the aforementioned association is a nonprofit party and aims to develop the career of constructing apartments and buildings as is the case with many other unions. The statute of the Association is included in the letter?

After prolonged deliberations, the Board decided the following:

Zakah is a commandment of Allah to a Muslim with the conditions clarified by the scripts of Sharia and the first of which is "Possession" referred to, by jurists, as "Specific owner" since it is stated in [Nihayat Al-Muhtaj vol.3/pp.127]: "Being possessed by a specific owner is among the conditions that make Zakah on wealth obligatory."

Similar to endowment funds, the Zakah condition (Specific owner or owners) doesn't apply to the afore parties. 

Moreover, Zakah is due on co-operative associations and other organizations that have a specific owner

or multiple shareholders. And Allah Knows Best. 

 

Chairman of Iftaa` Board,

Grand Mufti of Jordan,

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh

Vice Chairman, Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh

Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaz, Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Esa, Member

Dr. Majid Darawsheh, Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi, Member

Judge Khalid Woraikat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Zo`bi, Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is the marriage, which lacks a valid legal contract, a guardian, and a court registration, valid?

It is incumbent that a valid marriage contract be concluded in the presence of a guardian and two trustful witnesses, and it should be registered in the court to protect the rights of the wife. Actually, a valid marriage contract is what differentiates between sound marriage and fornication.

What is the ruling on deliberately breaking the fast while being capable of fasting?

Whoever intentionally breaks their fast in Ramadan without a valid excuse has committed a major sin and bears great guilt. They must repent, seek forgiveness, refrain from eating and drinking for the rest of the day, and make up for that day after Ramadan.
They have lost an immense reward, which cannot be compensated even by fasting an entire lifetime as a voluntary act, because an obligatory fast cannot be equaled by voluntary fasting.
If the fast was broken through sexual intercourse, the person must:
● Make up for the missed fast (qada), and
● Perform kaffarah by fasting two consecutive months.
● If they are unable to do so, they must feed sixty needy people.

What is the Islamic ruling on smearing the head of the newborn with the blood of the `Aqiqah?

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is disliked (makrūh) to smear the head of the newborn with the blood of the 'aqīqah, as this is a practice that belongs to the customs of the pre-Islamic era of ignorance (Jāhiliyyah). What is Sunnah instead is to anoint the newborn's head with saffron or another pleasant fragrance. And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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