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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(245): "Treatment of Gender Identity Disorder"

Date Added : 04-12-2017

Resolution No.(245)(14/2017) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Treatment of Gender Identity Disorder"

Date: 2/Rabi` Al Thani/1439, corresponding to 21/11/2017.

 

During its 13th session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the letter sent from the Mufti of the Jordan Armed Forces-Arab Army concerning a question passed to him by the Royal Medical Services about two female patients who have what is known as "Gender Identity Disorder." Although they have normal female organs and hormones, their thinking and sexual orientation are purely masculine. Therefore, they are demanding gender transformation through removing their breasts and uteri in addition to the rest of the genital apparatus, and getting a male genital apparatus later on. Could you clarify the ruling of Sharia on such case since it is very rare?

After deliberating, the Board arrived at the following decision:

What determines femininity and masculinity is the body itself and its biological features. The most important of the these is the genital apparatus which differentiates males from females. Therefore,  if someone suffered from gender identity disorder, then it should be treated in a way that brings things back to normal, but in line with the basic masculine or feminine identity  of the genital apparatus of that person, and not transforming his/her gender through removal of genitals by surgery. In fact, it isn`t permissible to rely on psychological disorder as the parameter determining someone`s gender and sexual orientation. Muslim scholars have arrived at this through the following verse (What means): "(The Pagans), leaving Him, call but upon female deities: They call but upon satan the persistent rebel! God did curse him, but he said: "I will take of Thy servants a portion Marked off; "I will mislead them, and I will create in them false desires; I will order them to slit the ears of cattle, and to deface the (fair) nature created by God." Whoever, forsaking God, takes satan for a friend, hath of a surety suffered a loss that is manifest. Satan makes them promises, and creates in them false desires; but satan’s promises are nothing but deception. They (his dupes) will have their dwelling in Hell, and from it they will find no way of escape. {An-Nisa`,117-121}.

In conclusion, transforming someone`s genital apparatus and removing his/her genitals by surgery to treat what is called "Gender Identity Disorder" isn`t permissible in Sharia. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of Iftaa` Board,

Grand Mufti of Jordan,

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh

Vice Chairman, Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh

Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaz, Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Esa, Member

Dr. Majid Darawsheh, Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi, Member

Judge Khalid Woraikat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Zo`bi, Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for a religious young Muslim woman to love a young man for Allah`s sakes?

Such love between the two sexes is from the devil`s evil suggestions, and a pure Muslim woman should beware of such a matter, and she shouldn`t mix with non-Mahrams (Marriageable ).

Is the one who gives up on marriage because he can`t afford it considered sinful?

Marriage is desirable, but one who can`t afford it isn`t considered sinful. However, he should supplicate to Allah, and seek His forgiveness.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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