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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(245): "Treatment of Gender Identity Disorder"

Date Added : 04-12-2017

Resolution No.(245)(14/2017) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Treatment of Gender Identity Disorder"

Date: 2/Rabi` Al Thani/1439, corresponding to 21/11/2017.

 

During its 13th session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the letter sent from the Mufti of the Jordan Armed Forces-Arab Army concerning a question passed to him by the Royal Medical Services about two female patients who have what is known as "Gender Identity Disorder." Although they have normal female organs and hormones, their thinking and sexual orientation are purely masculine. Therefore, they are demanding gender transformation through removing their breasts and uteri in addition to the rest of the genital apparatus, and getting a male genital apparatus later on. Could you clarify the ruling of Sharia on such case since it is very rare?

After deliberating, the Board arrived at the following decision:

What determines femininity and masculinity is the body itself and its biological features. The most important of the these is the genital apparatus which differentiates males from females. Therefore,  if someone suffered from gender identity disorder, then it should be treated in a way that brings things back to normal, but in line with the basic masculine or feminine identity  of the genital apparatus of that person, and not transforming his/her gender through removal of genitals by surgery. In fact, it isn`t permissible to rely on psychological disorder as the parameter determining someone`s gender and sexual orientation. Muslim scholars have arrived at this through the following verse (What means): "(The Pagans), leaving Him, call but upon female deities: They call but upon satan the persistent rebel! God did curse him, but he said: "I will take of Thy servants a portion Marked off; "I will mislead them, and I will create in them false desires; I will order them to slit the ears of cattle, and to deface the (fair) nature created by God." Whoever, forsaking God, takes satan for a friend, hath of a surety suffered a loss that is manifest. Satan makes them promises, and creates in them false desires; but satan’s promises are nothing but deception. They (his dupes) will have their dwelling in Hell, and from it they will find no way of escape. {An-Nisa`,117-121}.

In conclusion, transforming someone`s genital apparatus and removing his/her genitals by surgery to treat what is called "Gender Identity Disorder" isn`t permissible in Sharia. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of Iftaa` Board,

Grand Mufti of Jordan,

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh

Vice Chairman, Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh

Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaz, Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Esa, Member

Dr. Majid Darawsheh, Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi, Member

Judge Khalid Woraikat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Zo`bi, Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on performing istinja' after passing wind from the anus?

Ablution is invalidated by passing wind from the anus, even without a smell. Only ablution becomes obligatory from it. Istinja' is not obligatory nor recommended. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

 
What is the ruling on the intention of fasting, where is its place, and when is its time?

The intention is a pillar of acts of worship; it is essential, and worship is not valid without it.
Its place is in the heart, and verbalizing it is recommended so that the tongue reminds the heart. Its meaning is to be determined to abstain from nullifiers of fasting during the upcoming day with the intention of worship and obedience to Allah Almighty. This meaning is naturally present in every Muslim on every night of Ramadan, so there is no need for obsessive doubts. If one says, "I intend to fast tomorrow for the sake of Allah," it removes any doubts.
Its time is from after sunset until before the true dawn.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?

When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).

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