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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(177): "Does the Indemnity Insurance Paid to the Killed`s Heirs Suffice as a Diyah" .

Date Added : 02-11-2015

Resolution No.(177)(9/2012) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Does the Indemnity Insurance Paid to the Killed`s Heirs Suffice as a Diyah"
Date: 8/8/1433 AH, corresponding to 28/6/2012 AD.

 

All praise is due to Allah, peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon his family and companions:

During its fifth session held on the above given date, the Board reviewed the following question:

Is it permissible to collect the indemnity insurance and does it suffice as a Diyah (Blood money)?

After prolonged deliberations, the Board came up with the following opinion:

If the effective regulations stipulate that the insurance company pays the indemnity insurance to the guardians of the victim and that it should be tantamount to the Diyah estimated in Sharia, then it is suffices, whether it was called an indemnity, or a Diyah.

However, if the indemnity insurance was less than the prescribed amount of the Diyah, then it is permissible for the guardians of the killed to claim the difference because it is an obligation on the killer.

Accordingly, there is no harm that the guardians of the killed accept the indemnity insurance, because Allah has granted them the right to receive the Diyah, which is indicated in the following verse: "Never should a believer kill a believer; but (If it so happens) by mistake, (Compensation is due) : If one (so) kills a believer, it is ordained that he should free a believing slave, and pay compensation to the deceased’s family, unless they remit it freely." {An-Nisa`/92}. Therefore, it doesn`t matter whether it was paid by the insurance company, charitable people, or the killer`s Aqila (Male relatives from his father`s side). And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the General Iftaa` Board, His grace the Mufti General of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh

Sheikh Sa`ied Hijjawi/ Member

Prof. Abdulsalam Al-Abbadi/ Member

Prof. Mohammad Al-Khwdah/Member

Prof. Abdul N`nassir Abu-Al-bas`sal/Member

Dr.Yahia Al-Boutoosh/Member

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Az`zoubi/ Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for a praying person to make supplication in each Sajdah (a prostration) of obligatory prayer?

It is permissible for a praying person, whether praying individually, or in congregation, to make supplication during Sujood (prostration) in obligatory, or voluntary prayers. However, it is disliked for the Imam to do so since he is required to spare the prayer performers any sort of hardship, unless he is leading a certain group who don`t mind him extending the prayer.

What is the wisdom and purpose behind the 'aqīqah?

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
Among the wisdoms and purposes of the 'aqīqah are the following:
First: Expressing joy at the blessing of Allah the Almighty, rejoicing in the newborn, and giving thanks to Allah for this gift. Allah the Almighty says (what means): "If you are grateful, I will surely increase you." [Ibrāhīm/7]
Second: Proclaiming and publicising the lineage (nasab) of the child — and the 'aqīqah serves as an appropriate and fitting means to this end.
Third: Gladdening the hearts of family members, relatives, friends, and the poor by gathering them together over a shared meal. And Allah Almighty knows best.

How do I deal with whispers (waswasa) in ablution and purification?

Whispers in ablution are from Satan, and the Muslim should not pay attention to them. He is not required to re-perform ablution or repeat washing a limb because of waswasa. He should always base his purification on its being valid. It is recommended for him to frequently say "La ilaha illa Allah" (There is no god but Allah), because Satan recoils when Allah is mentioned. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?

A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.

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