Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(92): “Ruling on a Woman`s Travel without a Mahram“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

Resolution No.(92) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

“Ruling on a Woman`s Travel without a Mahram“

Date: 28/6/1426 AH, corresponding to 48/2005

 

 

Question: Is a woman`s travel to a country, or from it without a Mahram (i.e. a husband or a person whom one is permanently prohibited from marrying due to suckling, marital, or blood relations) forbidden or not, and what is the ruling when she resides-without a Mahram-in the country where she works?

Answer: Praise be to Allah; and may His blessings and peace be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

In principle, it is forbidden for a woman to travel-or reside in a country- without a husband, or a Mahram for a distance longer than that allowed in case of shortening prayers. This is based on the Hadith of Ibn Umar who reported that the prophet (PBUH) said: “A woman should not travel for more than three days except with a Dhi-Mahram (i.e. a male with whom she cannot marry at all, e.g. her brother, father, grandfather, etc.) or her own husband.“ {Bukhari & Muslim}. Also for the Hadith of Abu-Hurairah who reported that the Prophet (PBUH) said: “It is not permissible for a woman who believes in Allah and the Last Day to travel for one day and night except with a Mahram." {Bukhari & Muslim}.

Moreover, Abu-Sa`eid  reported that the Prophet (PBUH) said: “A woman should not go on a two day journey except with her husband or a Dhi-Mahram.” {Mukhari & Muslim}. However, the majority of Muslim scholars have agreed that it is permissible for a woman to travel without a Mahram, or her husband in the following situations:

1-  Fleeing a war zone to a peaceful country.

2-  Fearing for herself.

3-  Captivity, then  managing to escape.

4-  Paying off a debt and returning a deposit.

5-  Abandoning the state of recalcitrance.

6- Obligation to observe Iddah (waiting period) due to death of husband, or Ba`ien divorce while travelling. In this case, she should return to her home.

The Iftaa` Board is of the view that a woman is allowed to travel without a husband, or a Mahram for a legitimate cause, if her travel meets the following conditions:

1- The road is safe.

2- No temptations are involved.

3- Travelling with God-fearing group of women.

4- Adherence to Islamic wear, morals and etiquette.

5- Using public means of transportation while accompanied by trustful women.

6- Staying with God-fearing and righteous group of women.

This is indicated by the Hadith of Adi Bin Hatim who said: “While I was in the city of the Prophet, a man came and complained to him (the Prophet) of destitution and poverty. Then another man came and complained of robbery (by highwaymen). he (PBUH), said: "Adi! Have you been to Al-Hira?" I said: "I haven't been to it, but I was informed about it." And he (PBUH) said (What means): "If you should live for a long time, you will certainly see that a lady in a Howdah traveling from Al-Hira will (safely reach Mecca and) perform the Tawaf of the Ka'ba, fearing none but Allah” {Bukhari}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board

Chief Justice/ Izzaldeen At-Tamimi

Dr. Abdolmajeed As-Salaheen   Sheikh Sai`ed Hijjawi

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakri     Sheikh Abdulkareem Khasawneh

Sheikh Na`iem Mujjahid   Dr. Yousef Ghaidahn

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it obligatory to have the intention for each day of fasting, or is one intention sufficient for the whole month?

The intention is obligatory for each day of Ramadan because each day is an independent act of worship separate from the others.
The intention must be made at night before the break of dawn, as the Prophetﷺ said: "Whoever does not intend fasting at night, there is no fast for him." [An-Nasa’i] 
And he also said: "Whoever does not firmly resolve to fast before dawn, there is no fast for him." [At-Tirmidhi, Abu Dawood, and An-Nasa’i]
Whoever wakes up and eats Suhoor while mindful of fasting has made the intention. Likewise, one who firmly intends at any moment during the night to fast the next day has also fulfilled the intention.

What is the Sharia basis of the Udhiyah?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
The Sharia basis of the Udhiyah (sacrificial offering) is firmly established through the Quran, the Sunnah, and the Consensus (Ijma') of the Muslims:
1. Evidence from the Holy Quran
Allah the Exalted says {what means}: "And the camels and cattle We have appointed for you as among the symbols of Allah; for you therein is good." [Al-Hajj/36]. He also says {what means}: "So pray to your Lord and sacrifice [to Him alone]" [Al-Kawthar/2]. According to the most well-known scholarly interpretations of this verse, "prayer" refers to the Eid prayer, and "sacrifice" refers to the slaughtering of the Udhiyah.
2. Evidence from the Sunnah
Al-Bara' bin 'Azib (may Allah be pleased with him) narrated that the Prophet ﷺ said: "The first thing we start with on this day of ours is to pray, then we return and sacrifice. Whoever does that has followed our Sunnah, and whoever slaughters before [the prayer], it is merely meat he has provided for his family; it is not part of the ritual sacrifice in any way" [Reported by Bukhari & Muslim].
Anas (may Allah be pleased with him) narrated: "The Prophet ﷺ sacrificed two white rams with horns. He slaughtered them with his own hand, mentioned the name of Allah (Tasmiyah), and said the Takbir" [Reported by Bukhari & Muslim].
3. Evidence from Scholarly Consensus (Ijma')
The Muslims have reached a unanimous consensus on the Sharia basis of the Udhiyah, and no one among the scholars has disagreed with this. [Al-Sherbini, Mughni al-Muhtaj, Vol.6/P.122].And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on the ablution of one who touches women prohibited to him by a temporary prohibition (mahram bi-hurma mu'aqqata)?

It is prohibited to touch a woman who is temporarily prohibited (meaning one whom it becomes permissible to marry after the impediment is removed, such as the wife of a brother or paternal uncle). Touching her without a barrier invalidates ablution. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on ablution if vaginal discharge is expelled, and is it impure?

If these discharges exit from the external genitalia (apparent part of the vagina), they are not impure and do not invalidate ablution. If they exit from the internal part, they are impure and do invalidate ablution. If it is uncertain whether they are from the internal or external part, they are not impure and do not invalidate ablution.
 
The apparent part is what becomes visible when sitting, and what the husband's penis reaches during intercourse is considered part of the apparent. The internal part is what is beyond that. And Allah the Almighty knows best.