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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Date Added : 02-11-2015

Resolution No.(92) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

“Ruling on a Woman`s Travel without a Mahram“

Date: 28/6/1426 AH, corresponding to 48/2005

 

 

Question: Is a woman`s travel to a country, or from it without a Mahram (i.e. a husband or a person whom one is permanently prohibited from marrying due to suckling, marital, or blood relations) forbidden or not, and what is the ruling when she resides-without a Mahram-in the country where she works?

Answer: Praise be to Allah; and may His blessings and peace be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

In principle, it is forbidden for a woman to travel-or reside in a country- without a husband, or a Mahram for a distance longer than that allowed in case of shortening prayers. This is based on the Hadith of Ibn Umar who reported that the prophet (PBUH) said: “A woman should not travel for more than three days except with a Dhi-Mahram (i.e. a male with whom she cannot marry at all, e.g. her brother, father, grandfather, etc.) or her own husband.“ {Bukhari & Muslim}. Also for the Hadith of Abu-Hurairah who reported that the Prophet (PBUH) said: “It is not permissible for a woman who believes in Allah and the Last Day to travel for one day and night except with a Mahram." {Bukhari & Muslim}.

Moreover, Abu-Sa`eid  reported that the Prophet (PBUH) said: “A woman should not go on a two day journey except with her husband or a Dhi-Mahram.” {Mukhari & Muslim}. However, the majority of Muslim scholars have agreed that it is permissible for a woman to travel without a Mahram, or her husband in the following situations:

1-  Fleeing a war zone to a peaceful country.

2-  Fearing for herself.

3-  Captivity, then  managing to escape.

4-  Paying off a debt and returning a deposit.

5-  Abandoning the state of recalcitrance.

6- Obligation to observe Iddah (waiting period) due to death of husband, or Ba`ien divorce while travelling. In this case, she should return to her home.

The Iftaa` Board is of the view that a woman is allowed to travel without a husband, or a Mahram for a legitimate cause, if her travel meets the following conditions:

1- The road is safe.

2- No temptations are involved.

3- Travelling with God-fearing group of women.

4- Adherence to Islamic wear, morals and etiquette.

5- Using public means of transportation while accompanied by trustful women.

6- Staying with God-fearing and righteous group of women.

This is indicated by the Hadith of Adi Bin Hatim who said: “While I was in the city of the Prophet, a man came and complained to him (the Prophet) of destitution and poverty. Then another man came and complained of robbery (by highwaymen). he (PBUH), said: "Adi! Have you been to Al-Hira?" I said: "I haven't been to it, but I was informed about it." And he (PBUH) said (What means): "If you should live for a long time, you will certainly see that a lady in a Howdah traveling from Al-Hira will (safely reach Mecca and) perform the Tawaf of the Ka'ba, fearing none but Allah” {Bukhari}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board

Chief Justice/ Izzaldeen At-Tamimi

Dr. Abdolmajeed As-Salaheen   Sheikh Sai`ed Hijjawi

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakri     Sheikh Abdulkareem Khasawneh

Sheikh Na`iem Mujjahid   Dr. Yousef Ghaidahn

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is everyone obligated to follow the fatwas of his country, and if we adopt the fatwas of scholars of other countries, is it considered a sin?

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Wolrds and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.

It is permissible for the person who isn't specialized in Sharia sciences to apply the opinions of renowned scholars whom he trusts ,whether they be from his own country or not ,but if the scholars have different opnions regarding a certain issue/matter, then he must consult someone who is more knowledgeable than himself .It is preferable that you (the questioner) specify the case of your interest ,so that we could give you a more specific answer since some scholars deliver fatwas based on illogical/atypical opinions which should not be applied no matter what .And Allah The Exalted Knows Best.

Should a woman who broke her fast because of delivery make up for missed fasting days before the next Ramadhaan, and what is the expiation due on her in case she delayed making up for them ?

She should make up for missed fasting days before the start of next Ramadan if possible, but if she didn`t while being able to, then she is obliged to make up for them along with feeding a needy person for each delayed day of the missed fasting days. However, if she wasn`t able to make up for the missed fasting days before the start of next Ramadan, she has to fast a day for every day that she missed, and no ransom is due on her. And Allah Knows Best.

I am a wholesale gold trader. My clients are retail gold shop owners. I sell them gold jewelry and ornaments on credit, and they repay me in weekly installments over a period of two months or more. The payments are made in cash for the labor charges and for the gold they owe me. In return, they may give me either cash or used gold.
 

It is not permissible to sell gold or silver on an installment basis or with a deferred payment; rather, immediate exchange is required. The Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said: "Gold for gold, silver for silver, wheat for wheat, barley for barley, dates for dates, and salt for salt, like for like, hand to hand. Whoever gives more or asks for more has engaged in usury; the giver and receiver are the same in this regard." (Muslim). Additionally, the weight of the gold must be equal when exchanging new for used; otherwise, it involves usury. The solution is to buy the used gold with cash, then sell the new gold for cash as well. However, payment must be made at the time of the transaction in both cases. Alternatively, one could take the used gold with the intention of refining it, reshape it into a new form, or repair it, then take a fee for the workmanship or repair. And Allah Knows Best

A person vowed to slaughter a sacrificial animal. Is he permitted to eat from it?

If the vowed sacrificial animal was for the sake of Allah, and the one who vowed didn't specify then its meat should be distributed only among the poor and needy similar to distributing Zakah of Al-Fiter so neither him nor his dependents permitted to eat from; however if his vow was to made a banquet and invititing his relatives and others; then he must bring up as much as he can from its meat for them. In addition, he is permitted to eat from it in a reasonable basis. And Allah Knows Best. 

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