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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(92): “Ruling on a Woman`s Travel without a Mahram“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

Resolution No.(92) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

“Ruling on a Woman`s Travel without a Mahram“

Date: 28/6/1426 AH, corresponding to 48/2005

 

 

Question: Is a woman`s travel to a country, or from it without a Mahram (i.e. a husband or a person whom one is permanently prohibited from marrying due to suckling, marital, or blood relations) forbidden or not, and what is the ruling when she resides-without a Mahram-in the country where she works?

Answer: Praise be to Allah; and may His blessings and peace be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

In principle, it is forbidden for a woman to travel-or reside in a country- without a husband, or a Mahram for a distance longer than that allowed in case of shortening prayers. This is based on the Hadith of Ibn Umar who reported that the prophet (PBUH) said: “A woman should not travel for more than three days except with a Dhi-Mahram (i.e. a male with whom she cannot marry at all, e.g. her brother, father, grandfather, etc.) or her own husband.“ {Bukhari & Muslim}. Also for the Hadith of Abu-Hurairah who reported that the Prophet (PBUH) said: “It is not permissible for a woman who believes in Allah and the Last Day to travel for one day and night except with a Mahram." {Bukhari & Muslim}.

Moreover, Abu-Sa`eid  reported that the Prophet (PBUH) said: “A woman should not go on a two day journey except with her husband or a Dhi-Mahram.” {Mukhari & Muslim}. However, the majority of Muslim scholars have agreed that it is permissible for a woman to travel without a Mahram, or her husband in the following situations:

1-  Fleeing a war zone to a peaceful country.

2-  Fearing for herself.

3-  Captivity, then  managing to escape.

4-  Paying off a debt and returning a deposit.

5-  Abandoning the state of recalcitrance.

6- Obligation to observe Iddah (waiting period) due to death of husband, or Ba`ien divorce while travelling. In this case, she should return to her home.

The Iftaa` Board is of the view that a woman is allowed to travel without a husband, or a Mahram for a legitimate cause, if her travel meets the following conditions:

1- The road is safe.

2- No temptations are involved.

3- Travelling with God-fearing group of women.

4- Adherence to Islamic wear, morals and etiquette.

5- Using public means of transportation while accompanied by trustful women.

6- Staying with God-fearing and righteous group of women.

This is indicated by the Hadith of Adi Bin Hatim who said: “While I was in the city of the Prophet, a man came and complained to him (the Prophet) of destitution and poverty. Then another man came and complained of robbery (by highwaymen). he (PBUH), said: "Adi! Have you been to Al-Hira?" I said: "I haven't been to it, but I was informed about it." And he (PBUH) said (What means): "If you should live for a long time, you will certainly see that a lady in a Howdah traveling from Al-Hira will (safely reach Mecca and) perform the Tawaf of the Ka'ba, fearing none but Allah” {Bukhari}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board

Chief Justice/ Izzaldeen At-Tamimi

Dr. Abdolmajeed As-Salaheen   Sheikh Sai`ed Hijjawi

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakri     Sheikh Abdulkareem Khasawneh

Sheikh Na`iem Mujjahid   Dr. Yousef Ghaidahn

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Summarized Fatawaa

Which is better during the day in Ramadan: reciting the Quran or performing voluntary prayers?

A Muslim should establish a daily schedule for reciting the Quran in Ramadan.
Once they have completed their daily portion (known as a wird or hizb), they can engage in other acts of worship, including voluntary prayers (nawafil). Prayer itself is called "Quran", because a significant part of it involves reciting the Quran.
Allah says: "BE CONSTANT in [thy] prayer from the time when the sun has passed its zenith till the darkness of night, and [be ever mindful of its] recitation at dawn: for, behold, the recitation [of prayer] at dawn is indeed witnessed [by all that is holy]." [Al-Isra`/78]

 
What is the ruling on the intention of fasting, where is its place, and when is its time?

The intention is a pillar of acts of worship; it is essential, and worship is not valid without it.
Its place is in the heart, and verbalizing it is recommended so that the tongue reminds the heart. Its meaning is to be determined to abstain from nullifiers of fasting during the upcoming day with the intention of worship and obedience to Allah Almighty. This meaning is naturally present in every Muslim on every night of Ramadan, so there is no need for obsessive doubts. If one says, "I intend to fast tomorrow for the sake of Allah," it removes any doubts.
Its time is from after sunset until before the true dawn.

What is the Islamic ruling on smearing the head of the newborn with the blood of the `Aqiqah?

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is disliked (makrūh) to smear the head of the newborn with the blood of the 'aqīqah, as this is a practice that belongs to the customs of the pre-Islamic era of ignorance (Jāhiliyyah). What is Sunnah instead is to anoint the newborn's head with saffron or another pleasant fragrance. And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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