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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(167): "Ruling on the Uncovered Credit Card at the Islamic Bank"

Date Added : 08-10-2015

Resolution No.(167) (8/2011) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on the Uncovered Credit Card at the Islamic Bank"

Date 26/8/1432AH, corresponding to 28/7/2011AD.

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
During its eleventh session held on the above given date, the Board reviewed the following question:
What is the ruling of Sharia when a client of the Islamic Bank requests issuing him a credit card in return for a charge (15-30) JDs, where he uses this card to purchase products while his balance is uncovered, so the bank debits them to his account until his salary arrives. Afterwards, the bank deducts the exact value of those products from the client`s salary. However, if he withdrew a certain cash amount from an ATM using that card-while his balance is uncovered- the bank deducts it from his salary in addition to 4% of that amount?
After prolonged deliberations, the Board decided:
Part one: The issuance charge (15-30) JDs charged by the bank on annual basis  against offering actual services to the client is permissible if it equals them. Also, if the client made a withdrawal from the bank by using this card while having a covered balance, then it is permissible for the bank to deduct a specific fee in return for that service.
Part two: Making a withdrawal through this card from ATM machine while the client`s balance is uncovered and the bank deducting it from his salary in addition to 4% from the withdrawn amount is unlawful. This is because in Sharia terms this transaction is classified as a loan and the Sharia maxim in this regard states that every loan which leads to a benefit is usurious. Consequently, every interest that results from this loan in favor of the bank is a forbidden usury. Allah, The Almighty, Says (What means): "Those who devour usury will not stand except as stand one whom the Evil one by his touch Hath driven to madness. That is because they say: "Trade is like usury," but God hath permitted trade and forbidden usury" {Al-Baqarah/275}. And Allah Knows Best.


Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, The Mufti General of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, His Grace Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh.
Vice Head of the Iftaa` Board, Dr. Ahmad Helayel
Dr. Yahia Al-Botoosh/ Member
His Eminence, Sheikh Sa`ied Hijjawi/ Member
Judge Sari Attieh/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Essa/ Member
Prof. Abduln`nassir Abu Al Bass`al/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Oklah Al-Ib`brahim
Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Al-Gharaibeh/ Member
Dr.Abdulrahmann Ibbdah/ Member
Executive Secretary of the Iftaa` Board, Sheikh Mohammad Al-Hunaiti

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on ablution without istinja' after sleep?

The sleep of one whose buttocks are not firmly seated on the ground invalidates ablution. Whoever wakes up and wants to pray must perform ablution only. Istinja' is not a condition for the validity of ablution, because it is for removing impurity from the private part. If there is no impurity on the private part, then istinja' is neither obligatory nor recommended. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for a pious Muslim woman to stay with her husband who had quit praying out of laziness?

Quitting prayer is one of the major grave sins that come after disbelieving in Allah, but the wife of such a person isn`t considered divorced, rather, she should exert all her efforts in order to bring him back to the way of Islam. However, if his sin is likely to lure her from the way of Islam, then she had better separate from him by lawful means such as Mokhal`aa (When a wife pays a compensation for her husband in return for divorcing her). Moreover, if she exercises patience, and remains steadfast on her faith, then there is no harm in doing that.

Is it permissible for one to shake hands with his uncle`s daughter?

No, it isn`t because he is a non-Mahram (Marriageable) to her.

Is it permissible to pay the Zakah (obligatory charity) for settling the debt of a deceased relative?

It is impermissible to pay the Zakah for settling the debt of the deceased since Zakah is paid to eligible recipients who are alive. As for the debts of the deceased, they are to be settled from the estate before dividing it amongst the heirs, but if the deceased didn`t leave an estate, then it is desirable for his/her heirs to settle those debts if they can afford them. And Allah Knows Best.

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